The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed prednisone to be taken on alternate days. The client asks why he cannot just take half a pill every day.
What rationale should the nurse describe?
To decrease adrenal suppression.
To eliminate adverse side effects.
To prevent steroid tolerance.
To prolong therapeutic effects.
The Correct Answer is A
Prednisone is a glucocorticoid that suppresses the production of natural cortisol by the adrenal glands. Taking prednisone on alternate days allows the adrenal glands to recover and produce some cortisol on the days without prednisone.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone does not eliminate adverse side effects, but may cause some such as weight gain, fluid retention, increased blood pressure, increased blood glucose, and increased risk of infection.
Choice C is wrong because there is no evidence of steroid tolerance, which means that higher doses are needed to achieve the same effect.
Choice D is wrong because prednisone does not prolong therapeutic effects, but may decrease them over time due to feedback inhibition of cortisol secretion.
Normal ranges for cortisol are 6 to 23 mcg/dL in the morning and 2 to 11 mcg/dL in the afternoon.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old child with obsessive-compulsive disorder is not typically a candidate for misoprostol, as it is not indicated for this condition.
B. A 46-year-old trial lawyer with hypertension might need caution when using misoprostol, as it can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain, which could be problematic.
C. An 83-year-old client with rheumatoid arthritis is the best candidate for misoprostol, particularly if they are taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for their condition. Misoprostol is often used to prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers in patients at high risk, such as elderly individuals or those with a history of ulcers.
D. A 22-year-old pregnant client should not be given misoprostol unless it is used for specific obstetric indications under close supervision. Misoprostol can induce uterine contractions and is contraindicated in pregnancy unless used for medical reasons like inducing labor or treating postpartum hemorrhage.
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