A client has an important presentation to make in 4 hours, and he needs relief from the congestion of seasonal rhinitis. The client calls the nurse, explains the situation, and tells the nurse that he cannot afford to be drowsy.
What medication is most likely to meet this client’s needs?
Loratadine.
Diphenhydramine.
Hydroxyzine.
Dexchlorpheniramine.
The Correct Answer is A
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect. It can relieve the symptoms of seasonal rhinitis such as sneezing, runny nose, and itching.
Choice B. Diphenhydramine is wrong because it is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
Choice C. Hydroxyzine is wrong because it is also a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
It is mainly used for anxiety and itching.
Choice D. Dexchlorphen
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Metoclopramide is a medication that increases muscle contractions in the upper digestive tract and speeds up the rate at which the stomach empties into the intestines. It is used to treat gastroparesis (slow stomach emptying) in people with diabetes, which can cause heartburn and stomach discomfort after meals.
Choice A is wrong because impaction is a condition where a large mass of dry, hard stool becomes stuck in the rectum and cannot be passed.
Metoclopramide does not treat impaction, but laxatives or enemas may be used instead.
Choice C is wrong because encopresis is a condition where a child over the age of 4 has involuntary bowel movements, usually due to chronic constipation.
Metoclopramide does not treat encopresis, but behavioral therapy, laxatives, or dietary changes may be used instead.
Choice D is wrong because metoclopramide is not used for clients requiring diagnostic procedures involving the stomach or intestines.
However, it may be used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy or surgery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is the recommended dosage for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice B is wrong because 70 mg once a week is the dosage for alendronate (Fosamax), not ibandronate.
Choice C is wrong because 400 mg/d is the dosage for etidronate (Didronel), not ibandronate.
Choice D is wrong because ibandronate should be taken on an empty stomach, at least 60 minutes before food or drink.
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