A client has an important presentation to make in 4 hours, and he needs relief from the congestion of seasonal rhinitis. The client calls the nurse, explains the situation, and tells the nurse that he cannot afford to be drowsy.
What medication is most likely to meet this client’s needs?
Loratadine.
Diphenhydramine.
Hydroxyzine.
Dexchlorpheniramine.
The Correct Answer is A
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect. It can relieve the symptoms of seasonal rhinitis such as sneezing, runny nose, and itching.
Choice B. Diphenhydramine is wrong because it is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
Choice C. Hydroxyzine is wrong because it is also a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
It is mainly used for anxiety and itching.
Choice D. Dexchlorphen
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Famotidine is a histamine type 2 receptor antagonist (H blocker) which is commonly used for treatment of acid-peptic disease and heartburn. Famotidine has been linked to rare instances of clinically apparent acute liver injury, but it is less likely to cause hepatotoxicity than cimetidine, another H blocker. Famotidine also has fewer drug interactions than cimetidine.
Choice A is wrong because nizatidine is another H blocker that can cause mild and transient serum aminotransferase elevations.
Nizatidine has not been linked to cases of clinically apparent liver injury, but it has not been widely used.
Choice B is wrong because ranitidine is another H blocker that can cause mild and transient serum aminotransferase elevations.
Ranitidine has also been associated with rare instances of clinically apparent liver injury, some of which were fatal or required liver transplantation.
Choice C is wrong because cimetidine is another H blocker that can cause mild and transient serum aminotransferase elevations.
Cimetidine has also been implicated in several cases of clinically apparent acute liver injury, some of which were severe and led to acute liver failure and death.
Cimetidine also has many drug interactions due to its inhibition of cytochrome P enzymes.
Normal ranges for serum aminotransferases are 7 to 56 U/L for alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and 10 to 40 U/L for as
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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