A client has an important presentation to make in 4 hours, and he needs relief from the congestion of seasonal rhinitis. The client calls the nurse, explains the situation, and tells the nurse that he cannot afford to be drowsy.
What medication is most likely to meet this client’s needs?
Loratadine.
Diphenhydramine.
Hydroxyzine.
Dexchlorpheniramine.
The Correct Answer is A
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect. It can relieve the symptoms of seasonal rhinitis such as sneezing, runny nose, and itching.
Choice B. Diphenhydramine is wrong because it is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
Choice C. Hydroxyzine is wrong because it is also a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness or sedation as a common side effect.
It can also cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
It is mainly used for anxiety and itching.
Choice D. Dexchlorphen
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client should avoid taking aspirin while taking corticosteroids because of the potential drug-drug interaction between them. This interaction may cause a reduction in the blood levels of aspirin and decrease its effectiveness. It may also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects such as inflammation, bleeding, ulceration, and perforation.
Choice A is wrong because dimenhydrinate is an antihistamine that is used to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness.
It does not have a significant interaction with corticosteroids.
Choice C is wrong because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used to relieve pain, inflammation, and fever.
It has a similar interaction with corticosteroids as aspirin, but it is less potent and less likely to cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that is used to treat and prevent ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and other conditions that cause excess stomach acid.
It does not have a significant interaction with corticosteroids.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because antiemetics should be given to prevent motion sickness rather than after nausea or vomiting develop. Taking the medication 30 minutes before departing allows enough time for the drug to be absorbed and reach its peak effect.
Choice A is wrong because avoiding eating or drinking for 6 hours before the trip may cause dehydration and low blood sugar, which can worsen nausea and vomiting.
It is better to eat a light meal or snack before the trip and avoid spicy, greasy, or acidic foods.
Choice C is wrong because taking two doses if relief is not achieved may cause overdose and adverse effects.
Antiemetics should be taken as prescribed and not exceeded without consulting a doctor.
Choice D is wrong because increasing fluid intake to prevent urinary retention is not relevant for motion sickness.
Urinary retention is a possible side effect of some antiemetics, such as anticholinergics, but it is not a common problem for most people.
Fluid intake should be moderate and not excessive to avoid stomach distension.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.