A client presents at the clinic with a dry nonproductive cough. The client is diagnosed with bronchitis, and it has been determined that assistance is needed in thinning the sputum so the cough can become productive.
What does the nurse expect the provider will prescribe?
Benzonatate.
Dextromethorphan.
Dextromethorphan.
Guaifenesin.
The Correct Answer is D
Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps thin and loosen mucus in the lungs, making it easier to cough up the sputum. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Benzonatate is wrong because benzonatate is an antitussive that suppresses the cough reflex by numbing the throat and lungs.
It does not help with sputum production or clearance.
Choice B. Dextromethorphan is wrong because dextromethorphan is also an antitussive that acts on the brain to reduce the urge to cough.
It does not affect the mucus or bronchial secretions.
Choice C. Hydrocodone is wrong because hydrocodone is a narcotic antitussive that works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, blocking pain signals and decreasing cough.
It can cause sedation, respiratory depression, and dependence, and is not indicated for bronchitis.
Normal ranges for sputum production vary depending on the individual and the cause of the cough, but generally range from 10 to 100 mL per day.
Excessive or abnormal sputum may indicate an infection, inflammation, or obstruction of the airways.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse would assess these factors to determine the need for therapy. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Number of times client’s family reports the client is nauseated.
This is not a reliable indicator of the severity or cause of nausea and vomiting.
The nurse should assess the client directly and not rely on the family’s reports.
Choice B. How well the client is eating.
This is not a specific or objective measure of nausea and vomiting.
The client may have other reasons for not eating well, such as loss of appetite, taste changes, or pain.
The nurse should also monitor the client’s weight, hydration status, and electrolyte levels.
Choice D. Client’s nutritional status and fluid balance.
These are important aspects of the client’s overall health, but they are not directly related to nausea and vomiting.
The nurse should assess these factors as part of the comprehensive care plan, but they are not sufficient to determine the need for therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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