Mr Ozz, a 45-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830.
The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:
1530 and 2130
1730 and 2330
1130 and 1330
1330 and 1930
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: This does not match the peak time of NPH insulin.
Choice B rationale: This does not match the peak time of NPH insulin.
Choice C rationale: This does not match the peak time of NPH insulin.
Choice D rationale: This is because NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin that has an onset of action of 1 to 2 hours, a peak of 6 to 12 hours, and a duration of 18 to 24 hours. Therefore, if Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730, the peak effect will occur between 1330 and 1930, which means that his blood glucose level will be lowest during this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to increase urine output by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and water. It's not typically associated with hyperkalemia. In fact, it's more common for loop diuretics like furosemide to cause hypokalemia (low potassium) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium.
Choice B rationale: Lovastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. It is not related to increased cholesterol. Additionally, there is no known direct interaction between lovastatin and furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic, while selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of antidepressants, and they do not typically interact in a way that requires discontinuation.
Choice C rationale: Duloxetine is an antidepressant (SNRI), and glipizide is an oral diabetes medication. There's no direct interaction between duloxetine and glipizide that would necessitate discontinuation.
Choice D rationale: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, and glipizide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of medications. Both drugs contain sulfur groups in their chemical structures, and there is a possibility of cross-reactivity or drug interaction. This interaction can potentially reduce the effectiveness of glipizide, leading to compromised blood sugar control. Additionally, sulfonamide antibiotics like trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole can cause adverse reactions, including skin rashes or hypersensitivity reactions, particularly in individuals sensitive to sulfa medications.
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