The nurse assesses a client with damage to cranial nerve III. Which finding would be expected?

Asymmetric facial movement

Uvula deviation

Anosmia

Ptosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: Asymmetric facial movement might be associated with damage to other cranial nerves, not specifically cranial nerve III.

Choice B rationale: Uvula deviation is a sign of damage to the glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) nerves, not cranial nerve III.

Choice C rationale: Anosmia, the loss of sense of smell, is not typically associated with cranial nerve III dysfunction.

Choice D rationale: Damage to cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve) can lead to ptosis, the drooping of the eyelid.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.

Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.

Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.

A. Peyronie's disease B. Hypospadias C. Phimosis D. Orchitis

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is a condition that causes scar tissue to form in the penis, resulting in abnormal curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction.

Choice B rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis, not at the tip.

Choice C rationale: Phimosis is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted fully, leading to inflammation and infection.

Choice D rationale: Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles, usually caused by an infection.

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The nurse assesses a client with damage to cranial nerve III. Which finding would be expected?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

While performing the genital assessment of a male client, a nurse observes that the client has curvature of the penis. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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