A 49-year-old man who has type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and gastroesophageal reflux tells the nurse that he has had recent difficulty in achieving an erection.
Which of the following drugs from his current medications list may cause erectile dysfunction (ED)?
Propranolol (Inderal)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
Metformin (Glucophage)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker used for high blood pressure and other cardiovascular conditions, is known to have potential side effects of sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction (ED).
Choice B rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is an H2 blocker used for acid reflux and isn't typically associated with causing ED.
Choice C rationale: Atorvastatin (Lipitor), a statin used for high cholesterol, isn't commonly associated with causing ED.
Choice D rationale: Metformin (Glucophage), used for type 2 diabetes, is not typically linked to causing ED.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tachycardia and petechiae over the chest wall and buccal membranes are signs of fat embolism syndrome, another complication of fractures that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct pulmonary vessels.
Choice B rationale: Positive Homan's sign with calf tenderness and warmth are signs of deep vein thrombosis, a condition that can occur after prolonged immobilization or surgery.
Choice C rationale: Acute cough, cyanosis, and decreased blood pressure are signs of pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow.
Choice D rationale: These are signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious complication of fractures that occurs when increased pressure within a closed space compromises blood flow and tissue perfusion. Compartment syndrome can lead to ischemia, necrosis, and nerve damage if not treated promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
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