A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain- Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate that collaborative interventions at this time will include ...
intubation and mechanical ventilation.
IV infusion of (Sandoglobulin).
administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).
insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.
Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.
Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Anterior spinal artery syndrome is caused by ischemia of the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, resulting in loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
Choice B rationale: This is a condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower end of the spinal cord are compressed, causing symptoms such as lower back pain, sciatica, saddle anesthesia, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and sexual dysfunction.
Choice C rationale: Horner's syndrome is caused by damage to the sympathetic nerve fibers in the neck or chest, resulting in drooping eyelid, constricted pupil, and lack of sweating on one side of the face.
Choice D rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral loss of motor function and proprioception and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Metformin belongs to the biguanide class of antidiabetic medications.
Choice B rationale: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione used to treat diabetes, not a sulfonylurea.
Choice C rationale: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea used to stimulate insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes.
Choice D rationale: Repaglinide is a meglitinide, another class of drugs that stimulates insulin release.
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