The RN is serving as preceptor to a new graduate nurse who has recently passed the RN licensure (NCLEX®) examination. The new nurse has only been on the unit for 2 days. Which patient should be assigned to the new graduate nurse?
A 60-year-old patient with diabetes who has cellulitis of the left ankle.
A 50-year-old patient with diabetes just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after a below-knee amputation.
A 72-year-old patient with diabetes with diabetic ketoacidosis who is receiving IV insulin.
A 70-year-old patient with diabetes who is showing signs of hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Cellulitis management typically involves wound care, antibiotics, and monitoring. It's a suitable assignment for a new graduate nurse to begin learning about wound management and diabetic care.
Choice B rationale: Post-operative care for an amputation requires experience in assessing and managing post-surgical complications, which might not be suitable for a new graduate nurse.
Choice C rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis management involves complex insulin therapy and critical care, which might be overwhelming for a new graduate nurse.
Choice D rationale: While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and intervention, the cause and severity need to be determined before assigning this patient to a new
graduate nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: In ALS, impaired physical mobility due to decreased motor agility and the inability to ambulate is a direct consequence of the disease.
Choice B rationale: Hopelessness might be a possible emotional response but doesn't address the client's physical limitations due to ALS.
Choice C rationale: Caregiver role strain is related to the family's ability to manage caregiving responsibilities and is not the primary concern for the client's physical mobility.
Choice D rationale: Impaired memory is not the primary issue in ALS; the client's inability to ambulate due to decreased motor function is the main focus for this nursing diagnosis.
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