The RN is serving as preceptor to a new graduate nurse who has recently passed the RN licensure (NCLEX®) examination. The new nurse has only been on the unit for 2 days. Which patient should be assigned to the new graduate nurse?
A 60-year-old patient with diabetes who has cellulitis of the left ankle.
A 50-year-old patient with diabetes just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after a below-knee amputation.
A 72-year-old patient with diabetes with diabetic ketoacidosis who is receiving IV insulin.
A 70-year-old patient with diabetes who is showing signs of hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Cellulitis management typically involves wound care, antibiotics, and monitoring. It's a suitable assignment for a new graduate nurse to begin learning about wound management and diabetic care.
Choice B rationale: Post-operative care for an amputation requires experience in assessing and managing post-surgical complications, which might not be suitable for a new graduate nurse.
Choice C rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis management involves complex insulin therapy and critical care, which might be overwhelming for a new graduate nurse.
Choice D rationale: While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and intervention, the cause and severity need to be determined before assigning this patient to a new
graduate nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to increase urine output by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and water. It's not typically associated with hyperkalemia. In fact, it's more common for loop diuretics like furosemide to cause hypokalemia (low potassium) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium.
Choice B rationale: Lovastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. It is not related to increased cholesterol. Additionally, there is no known direct interaction between lovastatin and furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic, while selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of antidepressants, and they do not typically interact in a way that requires discontinuation.
Choice C rationale: Duloxetine is an antidepressant (SNRI), and glipizide is an oral diabetes medication. There's no direct interaction between duloxetine and glipizide that would necessitate discontinuation.
Choice D rationale: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, and glipizide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of medications. Both drugs contain sulfur groups in their chemical structures, and there is a possibility of cross-reactivity or drug interaction. This interaction can potentially reduce the effectiveness of glipizide, leading to compromised blood sugar control. Additionally, sulfonamide antibiotics like trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole can cause adverse reactions, including skin rashes or hypersensitivity reactions, particularly in individuals sensitive to sulfa medications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: In ALS, impaired physical mobility due to decreased motor agility and the inability to ambulate is a direct consequence of the disease.
Choice B rationale: Hopelessness might be a possible emotional response but doesn't address the client's physical limitations due to ALS.
Choice C rationale: Caregiver role strain is related to the family's ability to manage caregiving responsibilities and is not the primary concern for the client's physical mobility.
Choice D rationale: Impaired memory is not the primary issue in ALS; the client's inability to ambulate due to decreased motor function is the main focus for this nursing diagnosis.
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