The nurse prepares to administer promethazine 35 mg intramuscularly prescribed as needed for a client with cholecystitis who has severe nausea. The ampule label reads that the medication is available in 25 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
Record your answer using one decimal place.
1
1.4
1.5
0.7
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: this corresponds with 25 mg which is lower than the prescribed amount.
Choice B rationale: To answer this question, we need to use the formula: volume (mL) = dose (mg) / concentration (mg/mL). We plug in the given values: volume (mL) = 35 mg / 25 mg/mL. We simplify the fraction: volume (mL) = 7/5. We convert the fraction to a
decimal: volume (mL) = 1.4. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1.4 mL of promethazine.
Choice C rationale: this corresponds with 37.5 mg which is too high.
Choice D rationale: this corresponds with 17.5 mg which is too low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This refers to postrenal AKI, which is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract that prevents urine from leaving the body.
Choice B rationale: This refers to AKI in general and is not specific compared to choice D.
Choice C rationale: This refers to intrinsic AKI, which is caused by damage to the kidney tissue or cells from various causes, such as inflammation, infection, toxins, or ischemia.
Choice D rationale: This is correct because it is pre-renal AKI, a condition in which kidney blood flow may become significantly reduced, including cases where a significant amount of fluid has been lost. This situation suggests potential hypovolemia (low blood volume) due to the massive GI bleed, which can lead to reduced kidney blood flow and subsequent acute kidney injury.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
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