A nurse assesses a group of clients who have rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which client would the nurse see first?

Client with a worse joint deformity since the last visit

Client with a red, hot, swollen right wrist

Client who has a puffy-looking area behind the knee

Client who reports jaw pain when eating

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: While joint deformities are concerning in RA, the immediate attention would be required for an acute, red, hot, swollen joint which could indicate an active inflammatory process.
Choice B rationale: Redness, heat, and swelling in a joint are signs of an acute flare in rheumatoid arthritis and might require urgent intervention to manage the inflammation.
Choice C rationale: Puffy-looking areas behind the knee might indicate joint involvement but might not require immediate attention as much as an acutely inflamed joint.
Choice D rationale: Jaw pain while eating can be a symptom of TMJ involvement in RA, but an acutely inflamed joint would generally take precedence.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This refers to postrenal AKI, which is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract that prevents urine from leaving the body.

Choice B rationale: This refers to AKI in general and is not specific compared to choice D.

Choice C rationale: This refers to intrinsic AKI, which is caused by damage to the kidney tissue or cells from various causes, such as inflammation, infection, toxins, or ischemia.

Choice D rationale: This is correct because it is pre-renal AKI, a condition in which kidney blood flow may become significantly reduced, including cases where a significant amount of fluid has been lost. This situation suggests potential hypovolemia (low blood volume) due to the massive GI bleed, which can lead to reduced kidney blood flow and subsequent acute kidney injury.

A. A 58-year-old client with gastrointestinal reflux disease B. A 65-year-old client with mild emphysema C. A 72-year-old client with hyperthyroidism D. A 48-year-old client with hypertension

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Gastrointestinal reflux disease is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice B rationale: Mild emphysema is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice C rationale: Hyperthyroidism is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice D rationale: Sumatriptan, a medication used for migraines, may elevate blood pressure, so it would be questionable for a client with hypertension.

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A nurse assesses a group of clients who have rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which client would the nurse see first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A-55-year old male patient is admitted with a massive GI bleed. The patient is at risk for what type of acute kidney injury?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

For which client with severe migraine headaches would the nurse question an order for sumatriptan?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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