The newly diagnosed patient with type 2 diabetes has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage). What should the nurse tell the patient to best explain how this medication works?
Increases insulin release from the pancreas, inhibits glucagon secretion, and decreases gastric emptying.
Reduces glucose production by the liver and enhances insulin sensitivity.
Slows the absorption of carbohydrate in the small intestine.
Increases insulin production from the pancreas.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Metformin does not significantly affect insulin release from the pancreas or glucagon secretion but reduces glucose production by the liver and enhances insulin sensitivity in tissues.
Choice B rationale: Metformin primarily works by reducing glucose production in the liver and improving the body's response to insulin, thereby lowering blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale: Metformin does not notably slow carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
Choice D rationale: Metformin does not directly increase insulin production from the pancreas.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a normal value, indicating normal renal function. The client does not have any signs of kidney damage or impairment.
Choice B rationale: This is an elevated value, indicating an infection or inflammation in the body. Acute appendicitis is a common cause of increased white blood cells, as the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client's condition and prevent complications such as perforation or peritonitis.
Choice C rationale: This is a high value, indicating impaired renal function or dehydration. The client may have decreased urine output due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying kidney problems. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's hydration status and renal function, and to provide appropriate fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of peritoneal irritation, which may indicate that the appendix has ruptured or is close to rupturing. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention to remove the appendix and prevent sepsis and shock.
Choice E rationale: This is a low value, indicating hypokalemia or low potassium levels in the blood. The client may have lost potassium due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's cardiac function and muscle strength, and to provide appropriate potassium supplementation.
Choice F rationale: These are common symptoms of acute appendicitis, as the inflammation and infection of the appendix cause irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms do not require immediate follow-up, but they should be managed with antiemetics and fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: These are symptoms of advance renal failure. Stomatitis and diarrhea are signs of uremia, which is the accumulation of waste products in the blood.
Choice B rationale: Dyspnea and anuria are signs of fluid overload and kidney shutdown and indicate advanced renal failure.
Choice C rationale: Confusion and vomiting are signs of acidosis and electrolyte disturbances and occur in advanced stages of renal failure.
Choice D rationale: One of the early symptoms of renal insufficiency is nocturia, which is the need to urinate frequently at night. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine during the day and produce more urine at night. Another early symptom is oliguria, which is the production of less than 400 mL of urine per day. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to excrete enough urine to maintain fluid balance.
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