The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman who had a left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. Which factor puts this client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?

Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for hypertension.

She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.

She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.

Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Her healthcare provider prescribing a calcium channel blocker for hypertension is not directly linked to lymphedema.

Choice B rationale: Sustaining an insect bite to her left arm yesterday - Trauma or injury, such as an insect bite, to the affected limb post-mastectomy can increase the risk of

lymphedema.

Choice C rationale: Losing twenty pounds since the surgery might influence overall health but doesn’t specifically relate to lymphedema.

Choice D rationale: Her hobby of playing classical music on the piano is unrelated to the risk of developing lymphedema.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Bell's palsy is not caused by a bacterial infection; hence, antibiotics are not the primary treatment.

Choice B rationale: Corticosteroids like prednisone are often used to reduce inflammation and improve symptoms in Bell's palsy.

Choice C rationale: While vitamins can support overall health, they are not the primary treatment for Bell's palsy.

Choice D rationale: Surgery is not the primary treatment for Bell's palsy unless certain complications arise.

A. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. B. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex. C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.

Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.

Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,

necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.

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The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman who had a left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. Which factor puts this client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

You are working in a Family Practice office. A patient comes into the office with right facial drooping. The physician makes a diagnosis of Bell's palsy. You know that the primary treatment for this disease is likely to include:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client diagnosed with hypothyroidism has been taking the thyroid hormone levothyroxine for three months. Which client statement could indicate the client is receiving too much dose of the medication?

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