Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?
A 6 year old that is presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, and vomiting
A 66 year old with type I diabetes that has ketones present in their urine.
A 72 year old with a health history of diabetes who has a blood glucose of 300 mg/dL and is complaining of thirst and frequent urination.
A 69 year old admitted with an infection of the right foot with a health history of diabetes that reports missing several doses of Metformin and has a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) value of 6.9 indicates that the client has prediabetes, which is a risk factor for developing diabetes.
Choice B rationale: A postprandial blood glucose level of 170 mg/dL is within the normal range.
Choice C rationale: This indicates that the client has diabetes mellitus. According to the American Diabetes Association, a diagnosis of diabetes can be made if one of the
following criteria is met: a fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher, a postprandial blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL or higher, or an HbA1c value of 6.5% or higher.
Choice D rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cellulitis management typically involves wound care, antibiotics, and monitoring. It's a suitable assignment for a new graduate nurse to begin learning about wound management and diabetic care.
Choice B rationale: Post-operative care for an amputation requires experience in assessing and managing post-surgical complications, which might not be suitable for a new graduate nurse.
Choice C rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis management involves complex insulin therapy and critical care, which might be overwhelming for a new graduate nurse.
Choice D rationale: While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and intervention, the cause and severity need to be determined before assigning this patient to a new
graduate nurse.
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