Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?

A 6 year old that is presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, and vomiting

A 66 year old with type I diabetes that has ketones present in their urine.

A 72 year old with a health history of diabetes who has a blood glucose of 300 mg/dL and is complaining of thirst and frequent urination.

A 69 year old admitted with an infection of the right foot with a health history of diabetes that reports missing several doses of Metformin and has a blood glucose of 600 mg/dL.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).

Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.

Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.

Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.

Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.

Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.

Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.

A. 1 B. 1.4 C. 1.5 D. 0.7

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: this corresponds with 25 mg which is lower than the prescribed amount.

Choice B rationale: To answer this question, we need to use the formula: volume (mL) = dose (mg) / concentration (mg/mL). We plug in the given values: volume (mL) = 35 mg / 25 mg/mL. We simplify the fraction: volume (mL) = 7/5. We convert the fraction to a

decimal: volume (mL) = 1.4. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1.4 mL of promethazine.

Choice C rationale: this corresponds with 37.5 mg which is too high.

Choice D rationale: this corresponds with 17.5 mg which is too low.

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Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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