While performing the genital assessment of a male client, a nurse observes that the client has curvature of the penis. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?

Peyronie's disease

Hypospadias

Phimosis

Orchitis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale: This is a condition that causes scar tissue to form in the penis, resulting in abnormal curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction.

Choice B rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis, not at the tip.

Choice C rationale: Phimosis is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted fully, leading to inflammation and infection.

Choice D rationale: Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles, usually caused by an infection.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Post-surgery, there's a risk of lymphedema in the affected arm, so avoiding procedures like venipuncture or blood pressure measurements in the left arm helps prevent complications.

Choice B rationale: Obtaining a permanent breast prosthesis is a consideration post- recovery but not an immediate priority upon return to the surgical unit.

Choice C rationale: Patient-controlled analgesia instructions are important but don't specifically address immediate care after mastectomy.

Choice D rationale: Insisting that the patient examine the surgical incision might not be appropriate upon return to the unit, and it's typically done by healthcare professionals during dressing changes.

A. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. B. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex. C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.

Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.

Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,

necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.

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While performing the genital assessment of a male client, a nurse observes that the client has curvature of the penis. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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