A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further?
A scalp laceration oozing blood.
Dizziness, nausea, and transient confusion.
Headache rated "8" on a 0-10 scale.
Serosanguineous nasal drainage.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cellulitis management typically involves wound care, antibiotics, and monitoring. It's a suitable assignment for a new graduate nurse to begin learning about wound management and diabetic care.
Choice B rationale: Post-operative care for an amputation requires experience in assessing and managing post-surgical complications, which might not be suitable for a new graduate nurse.
Choice C rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis management involves complex insulin therapy and critical care, which might be overwhelming for a new graduate nurse.
Choice D rationale: While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and intervention, the cause and severity need to be determined before assigning this patient to a new
graduate nurse.
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