ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by which process?

Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys.

Low osmolality sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys.

High plasma osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus.

High concentration of potassium sensed by chemoreceptors in the carotid body.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys would stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which regulates blood pressure and sodium balance.

Choice B rationale: Low osmolality sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys would

indicate that the body has excess water and needs to excrete it, which would inhibit ADH release.

Choice C rationale: ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a peptide hormone that regulates the water balance in the body. It is released from the posterior pituitary gland in response to signals from the hypothalamus. When the plasma osmolarity, or the concentration of solutes in the blood, is high, it means that the body is dehydrated and needs to conserve water. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect this change and stimulate the release of ADH, which acts on the kidneys to increase water

reabsorption and decrease urine output. This helps to lower the plasma osmolarity and restore the water balance.

Choice D rationale: High concentration of potassium sensed by chemoreceptors in the carotid body would affect the acid-base balance and respiratory rate, but not ADH

release.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is a normal value, indicating normal renal function. The client does not have any signs of kidney damage or impairment.

Choice B rationale: This is an elevated value, indicating an infection or inflammation in the body. Acute appendicitis is a common cause of increased white blood cells, as the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client's condition and prevent complications such as perforation or peritonitis.

Choice C rationale: This is a high value, indicating impaired renal function or dehydration. The client may have decreased urine output due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying kidney problems. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's hydration status and renal function, and to provide appropriate fluid and electrolyte replacement.

Choice D rationale: This is a sign of peritoneal irritation, which may indicate that the appendix has ruptured or is close to rupturing. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention to remove the appendix and prevent sepsis and shock.

Choice E rationale: This is a low value, indicating hypokalemia or low potassium levels in the blood. The client may have lost potassium due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's cardiac function and muscle strength, and to provide appropriate potassium supplementation.

Choice F rationale: These are common symptoms of acute appendicitis, as the inflammation and infection of the appendix cause irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms do not require immediate follow-up, but they should be managed with antiemetics and fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

A. A 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago B. A 19-yr-old patient with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness C. A 22-yr-old patient with persistent red-brown vaginal drainage 3 days after having balloon thermotherapy D. A 35-yr-old patient with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.

Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.

Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.

Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.

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ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by which process?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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