A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has a urinary tract infection (UTI). The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reported to the nurse that the patient's blood glucose is 642 mg/dL and the patient is hard to arouse. When the nurse assesses the urine, there are no ketones present.
What collaborative care should the nurse expect for this patient?
Administer IV fluids rapidly to correct dehydration.
Routine insulin therapy and exercise
Cardiac monitoring to detect potassium changes
Administer a different antibiotic for the UTI.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: This patient is likely experiencing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Rapid administration of IV fluids is crucial to correct severe dehydration associated with HHS.
Choice B rationale: Routine insulin therapy and exercise might be components of diabetes management but wouldn't directly address the immediate concern of severe dehydration and high blood glucose.
Choice C rationale: Cardiac monitoring for potassium changes might be necessary but isn't the primary immediate intervention for HHS.
Choice D rationale: Administering a different antibiotic for the UTI is incorrect, because there is no evidence that the current antibiotic is ineffective or causing adverse effects. The UTI may have triggered the HHS, but it is not the main problem that needs to be addressed urgently.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Used in the management of hepatic encephalopathy by reducing the production of ammonia in the gut.
Choice B rationale: Often prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting bowel movements and aiding ammonia excretion. Choice C rationale: Typically used in managing ascites by reducing fluid retention and treating edema.
Choice D rationale: This medication can potentially worsen hepatic encephalopathy due to its sedative effects and impact on mental function. It's crucial to clarify its use in a patient with hepatic encephalopathy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
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