For which client with severe migraine headaches would the nurse question an order for sumatriptan?
A 58-year-old client with gastrointestinal reflux disease
A 65-year-old client with mild emphysema
A 72-year-old client with hyperthyroidism
A 48-year-old client with hypertension
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Gastrointestinal reflux disease is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice B rationale: Mild emphysema is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice C rationale: Hyperthyroidism is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice D rationale: Sumatriptan, a medication used for migraines, may elevate blood pressure, so it would be questionable for a client with hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a normal value, indicating normal renal function. The client does not have any signs of kidney damage or impairment.
Choice B rationale: This is an elevated value, indicating an infection or inflammation in the body. Acute appendicitis is a common cause of increased white blood cells, as the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client's condition and prevent complications such as perforation or peritonitis.
Choice C rationale: This is a high value, indicating impaired renal function or dehydration. The client may have decreased urine output due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying kidney problems. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's hydration status and renal function, and to provide appropriate fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of peritoneal irritation, which may indicate that the appendix has ruptured or is close to rupturing. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention to remove the appendix and prevent sepsis and shock.
Choice E rationale: This is a low value, indicating hypokalemia or low potassium levels in the blood. The client may have lost potassium due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's cardiac function and muscle strength, and to provide appropriate potassium supplementation.
Choice F rationale: These are common symptoms of acute appendicitis, as the inflammation and infection of the appendix cause irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms do not require immediate follow-up, but they should be managed with antiemetics and fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a positive Trousseau's sign, which indicates hypocalcemia or tetany. It is not related to meningitis or meningeal irritation.
Choice B rationale: Kernig's sign is indicated when there is resistance and pain with knee extension and hip flexion, suggesting meningeal irritation.
Choice C rationale: This is a positive Homan's sign, which indicates deep vein thrombosis or phlebitis. It is not related to meningitis or meningeal irritation.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of nuchal rigidity, which indicates meningeal irritation, but it is not specific to Kernig's sign. Nuchal rigidity can also be caused by other conditions such as cervical arthritis or muscle spasm.

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