A 60-year-old female client with a 5-year history of diabetes mellitus type 2 visits her primary health care provider with report of an "itchy" skin rash that she has never had before. On inspection, the nurse notes that she has multiple raised reddened lesions of varying sizes located primarily on her legs and arms.
The client reports that her diet has not changed and that she feels embarrassed about her skin problem. The nurse documents her current medications:
- Glipizide 5 mg orally once daily with breakfast for diabetes mellitus type 2
- Furosemide 20 mg orally once every other day for hypertension
- Lovastatin 40 mg orally once daily for high cholesterol
- Duloxetine 60 mg orally once daily for clinical depression
- Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole DS 1 tablet every 12 hours for acute urinary tract infection
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements below by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The nurse will instruct the client that she should not continue taking The nurse will instruct the client that she may not be able to continue taking ___________________ .
Furosemide/Hyperkalemia/Furosemide/Diuretic
Lovastatin/Increased cholesterol/Furosemide/Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Duloxetine/Depression/Glipizide/Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole/skin reaction sulfa/glipizide/sulfonylurea
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to increase urine output by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and water. It's not typically associated with hyperkalemia. In fact, it's more common for loop diuretics like furosemide to cause hypokalemia (low potassium) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium.
Choice B rationale: Lovastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. It is not related to increased cholesterol. Additionally, there is no known direct interaction between lovastatin and furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic, while selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of antidepressants, and they do not typically interact in a way that requires discontinuation.
Choice C rationale: Duloxetine is an antidepressant (SNRI), and glipizide is an oral diabetes medication. There's no direct interaction between duloxetine and glipizide that would necessitate discontinuation.
Choice D rationale: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, and glipizide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of medications. Both drugs contain sulfur groups in their chemical structures, and there is a possibility of cross-reactivity or drug interaction. This interaction can potentially reduce the effectiveness of glipizide, leading to compromised blood sugar control. Additionally, sulfonamide antibiotics like trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole can cause adverse reactions, including skin rashes or hypersensitivity reactions, particularly in individuals sensitive to sulfa medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Conus medullaris syndrome involves injury or compression to the end portion of the spinal cord and can present with various symptoms but not necessarily lack of normal sympathetic outflow leading to shock.
Choice B rationale: Concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury, and the symptoms described align more with spinal cord injury leading to neurogenic shock.
Choice C rationale: Neurogenic shock occurs due to the loss of sympathetic tone and is characterized by bradycardia, low blood pressure, and vasodilation following spinal cord injury at or above the level of the sixth thoracic vertebra.
Choice D rationale: Diffuse axonal injury typically presents with more widespread brain injury-related symptoms and is not associated with the specific spinal cord-related symptoms described.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A three-point gait is used when one leg is weaker or injured and cannot bear weight. The client should place the crutches about 12 inches in front of the feet and lean forward on the crutches. Then, the client should lift the injured leg and
swing the body forward between the crutches, landing on the uninjured leg. The client should not put any weight on the injured ankle, as ordered by the physician.
Choice B rationale: A four-point gait is used when both legs can bear some weight, but one is weaker than the other.
Choice C rationale: A swing-through gait is used when both legs can bear weight, but need assistance with balance and coordination.
Choice D rationale: A two-point gait is used when both legs have equal strength and can bear full weight.
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