A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?
The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.
The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Gastrointestinal reflux disease is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice B rationale: Mild emphysema is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice C rationale: Hyperthyroidism is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.
Choice D rationale: Sumatriptan, a medication used for migraines, may elevate blood pressure, so it would be questionable for a client with hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This patient is likely experiencing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Rapid administration of IV fluids is crucial to correct severe dehydration associated with HHS.
Choice B rationale: Routine insulin therapy and exercise might be components of diabetes management but wouldn't directly address the immediate concern of severe dehydration and high blood glucose.
Choice C rationale: Cardiac monitoring for potassium changes might be necessary but isn't the primary immediate intervention for HHS.
Choice D rationale: Administering a different antibiotic for the UTI is incorrect, because there is no evidence that the current antibiotic is ineffective or causing adverse effects. The UTI may have triggered the HHS, but it is not the main problem that needs to be addressed urgently.
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