A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?

The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.

The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.

The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.

This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.

Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.

Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,

necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Elevated T3 and T4 with low TSH levels are indicative of hyperthyroidism, not a side effect of radioactive iodine treatment.

Choice B rationale: One of the expected side effects of RAI treatment for hyperthyroidism is permanent hypothyroidism (or underactive thyroid, when the thyroid does not produce enough hormones). Elevated TSH levels with low T3 and T4 are indicative of hypothyroidism.

Choice C rationale: Low TSH, T3, and T4 levels are not typical outcomes of radioactive iodine treatment; typically, the treatment leads to a decrease in T3 and T4 with increased TSH levels.

Choice D rationale: Elevated TSH and low T3 is major side effect of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. However, it does not cause elevated T4 levels.

A. Seizure B. Anorexia C. Anhidrosis D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Hypoglycemia (blood sugar less than 30 mg/dL) can lead to seizures due to inadequate glucose supply to the brain.

Choice B rationale: Anorexia (loss of appetite) is not directly associated with low blood sugar but can be a symptom of other conditions.

Choice C rationale: Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat and is not typically associated with low blood sugar.

Choice D rationale: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be a symptom of severe hypoglycemia but is not the primary complication expected at this blood sugar level.

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A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which is a major side effect of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which complication is suspected in a client whose blood sugar is less than 30 mg/dL?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?