A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?
The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.
The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: With type 2 diabetes, insulin secretion is decreased, and insulin resistance is increased. This means that the pancreas does not produce enough insulin, and the cells of the body do not respond well to the insulin that is available. Insulin is a hormone that helps the body use glucose (sugar) for energy. Without enough insulin or with insulin resistance, glucose builds up in the blood, leading to high blood sugar levels and various complications.
Choice B rationale: This statement describes Type 1 diabetes, where the immune system destroys insulin-producing cells.
Choice C rationale: This describes type 1 diabetes, not type 2 diabetes. People with type 2 diabetes may or may not need to take insulin, depending on how well they can control their blood sugar levels with diet, exercise, and oral medications.
Choice D rationale: This refers to pancreatitis, which is a condition where the pancreas becomes inflamed due to infection, injury, or alcohol abuse. Pancreatitis can cause
severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, and elevated levels of pancreatic enzymes in the blood.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Her healthcare provider prescribing a calcium channel blocker for hypertension is not directly linked to lymphedema.
Choice B rationale: Sustaining an insect bite to her left arm yesterday - Trauma or injury, such as an insect bite, to the affected limb post-mastectomy can increase the risk of
lymphedema.
Choice C rationale: Losing twenty pounds since the surgery might influence overall health but doesn’t specifically relate to lymphedema.
Choice D rationale: Her hobby of playing classical music on the piano is unrelated to the risk of developing lymphedema.

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