A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?
The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.
The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is incorrect.
Choice B rationale: This describes metabolic syndrome, a collection of risk factors, but not a direct complication of type 1 diabetes.
Choice C rationale: This describes hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which is more characteristic of severe hyperglycemia but not the most common complication in type 1 diabetes.
Choice D rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a frequent and serious complication in type 1 diabetes, characterized by ketone formation due to the absence of insulin, leading to metabolic acidosis and potential life-threatening symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a condition that causes scar tissue to form in the penis, resulting in abnormal curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction.
Choice B rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis, not at the tip.
Choice C rationale: Phimosis is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted fully, leading to inflammation and infection.
Choice D rationale: Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles, usually caused by an infection.
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