A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?
The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.
The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This refers to postrenal AKI, which is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract that prevents urine from leaving the body.
Choice B rationale: This refers to AKI in general and is not specific compared to choice D.
Choice C rationale: This refers to intrinsic AKI, which is caused by damage to the kidney tissue or cells from various causes, such as inflammation, infection, toxins, or ischemia.
Choice D rationale: This is correct because it is pre-renal AKI, a condition in which kidney blood flow may become significantly reduced, including cases where a significant amount of fluid has been lost. This situation suggests potential hypovolemia (low blood volume) due to the massive GI bleed, which can lead to reduced kidney blood flow and subsequent acute kidney injury.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.
Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.
Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.
Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.
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