A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts).
What information is appropriate to tell this client?
The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.
The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While the temperature is important in assessing health, it isn't the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to others.
Choice B rationale: A thready pulse (a weak, barely palpable pulse) could indicate a critical drop in blood pressure and cardiac output, which is a significant concern.
Choice C rationale: While indicating a possible issue with hydration, it's not as immediately concerning as other findings in this context.
Choice D rationale: Recently lost his job - While this has social and economic implications, it's not an immediate physiological concern in this clinical scenario.
Choice E rationale: While significant in his overall health, it's not a direct finding from the current assessment that immediately raises concern.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Peptic ulcer disease doesn't typically present with ecchymosis around the umbilicus (Cullen's sign) or significantly elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice B rationale: Gastroenteritis is less likely given the specific symptoms, physical exam findings, and laboratory results indicating pancreatic involvement.
Choice C rationale: Acute pancreatitis fits the clinical picture with epigastric pain after heavy alcohol use, persistent nausea/vomiting, tenderness, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice D rationale: Diverticulitis typically presents with symptoms more localized to the lower abdomen and doesn't cause the characteristic findings seen in this scenario.
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