A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.

Prevent reinfection during treatment.

Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.

Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.

Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.

Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Cri du chat syndrome involves a high-pitched cry in infants and other distinct physical and developmental features, but it doesn't present with the described symptoms.

Choice B rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY) in males, typically presents with small testicles, gynecomastia (enlarged breast tissues), sexual dysfunction, and altered body proportions, such as long legs and a shorter trunk, aligning with the client's symptoms.

Choice C rationale: Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) manifests with severe developmental issues, facial abnormalities, and other physical malformations, but the described symptoms are not typically associated with this syndrome.

Choice D rationale: Turner syndrome involves females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome (45, X), resulting in specific physical features and medical problems not consistent with the described symptoms in a male client.

A. None of the above B. Patient is at risk to forms a cluster of metabolic dysregulations including insulin resistance, atherogenic dyslipidemia, central obesity, and hypertension. Patient may present with high blood pressure, central obesity, high triglycerides and C. low HDL D. Patient who is at risk may be due to an absolute or relative insulin deficiency or from a decreased response of the tissue to the circulating insulin (insulin resistance). Resulting in glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and a decreased uptake of glucose by the peripheral tissue which make the patient very thirsty, experiencing altered mental status, high serum osmolarity and high blood glucose level.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is incorrect.

Choice B rationale: This describes metabolic syndrome, a collection of risk factors, but not a direct complication of type 1 diabetes.

Choice C rationale: This describes hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which is more characteristic of severe hyperglycemia but not the most common complication in type 1 diabetes.

Choice D rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a frequent and serious complication in type 1 diabetes, characterized by ketone formation due to the absence of insulin, leading to metabolic acidosis and potential life-threatening symptoms.

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A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

While assessing a male client, a nurse observes that the client has a small penis, long legs, short trunk, enlarged breast tissues, small testicles, and sexual dysfunction. What diagnosis does the nurse suspect from these findings?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which is the most common complication expected in clients with type 1 diabetes Mellitus?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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