A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.

Prevent reinfection during treatment.

Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.

Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.

Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.

Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.

A. intubation and mechanical ventilation. B. IV infusion of (Sandoglobulin). C. administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol). D. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.

Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.

Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.

Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.

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A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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