The nurse cares for a client who sustained a femur fracture twelve hours ago.
Client reports shortness of breath and stated, 'something is not right.' The client was assessed to have a respiratory rate of 25/min and oxygen saturation of 90% while on room air.
Lung sounds had bilateral crackles throughout, and respirations were labored. Chest pain was reported that worsened with breathing. An emergent 12-lead electrocardiogram was obtained, and it was observed that the client had reddish-purple spots on their torso. A rapid response was called.
he client is demonstrating signs and symptoms of ?
pulmonary embolism
myocardial infarction
fat embolism syndrome
compartment syndrome
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: Pulmonary embolism would cause chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis, but not petechiae or neurological changes.
Choice B rationale: While chest pain might be associated with myocardial infarction, the combination of symptoms aligns more with a pulmonary embolism.
Choice C rationale: Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs, brain, or other organs. This can
cause respiratory distress, neurological impairment, petechiae (reddish-purple spots on the skin), and cardiac dysfunction.
Choice D rationale: Compartment syndrome doesn't typically manifest with respiratory symptoms or reddish-purple spots.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While it can be used for muscle spasms associated with musculoskeletal conditions, it's not primarily used as a first-line treatment for osteoarthritis pain and inflammation.
Choice B rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
Choice C rationale: It's a medication used for chronic pain conditions, including OA- related pain.
Choice D rationale: Often used for mild to moderate OA pain relief, it's a common medication for OA management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Asymmetric facial movement might be associated with damage to other cranial nerves, not specifically cranial nerve III.
Choice B rationale: Uvula deviation is a sign of damage to the glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) nerves, not cranial nerve III.
Choice C rationale: Anosmia, the loss of sense of smell, is not typically associated with cranial nerve III dysfunction.
Choice D rationale: Damage to cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve) can lead to ptosis, the drooping of the eyelid.
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