An older adult male reporting abdominal pain is admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility. It has been 7 days since his last bowel movement, his abdomen is distended, and he just vomited 150 mL of dark brown emesis. In which order should the nurse implement these interventions? (Arrange with the highest priority intervention on top, and lowest priority intervention on bottom.)
Elevate the head of the bed.
Complete focused assessment.
Send emesis sample to the lab.
Offer PRN pain medication
The Correct Answer is A,B,C,D
A. Elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is the highest priority to prevent aspiration and improve the client's comfort and breathing.
B. Complete focused assessment. A thorough assessment is necessary to gather more information about the client's condition and guide further interventions.
C. Send emesis sample to the lab. This helps in diagnosing the underlying cause of the dark brown emesis, which could indicate a serious gastrointestinal issue.
D. Offer PRN pain medication. Pain management is important but should be done after addressing immediate safety concerns and gathering sufficient assessment data.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Measure and record the client's urinary output every day.
While monitoring urinary output is important, it is not as directly related to the safety concerns associated with the new medications and the client's current state.
B. Obtain a blood pressure reading before the client gets out of bed.
This is the correct answer because both antidepressants and sedatives can cause orthostatic hypotension, which could lead to falls or other complications. Monitoring blood pressure before the client gets up helps to prevent these issues.
C. Obtain the client's vital signs every 4 hours when awake.
Regular vital sign monitoring is important, but specific attention to orthostatic changes is more critical in this scenario.
D. Provide the client with teaching regarding a cardiac diet.
While dietary education is important for long-term health management, it does not address the immediate risk associated with the prescribed medications and potential orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. BRCA1 and BRCA2 provide protection of mature, functioning breast and ovarian cells. This is not accurate; BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are involved in DNA repair, and mutations in these genes increase cancer risk.
B. The choice of treatment is best determined by the sensitivity of these genetic markers. While genetic markers can influence treatment decisions, this option does not directly address the role of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations in cancer risk.
C. Mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2 identify a client's risk for cancerous cell development in breast tissue. This is correct. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the risk of developing breast and ovarian cancer.
D. The prognosis of breast cancer is most successful when these markers are inherited mutations.
This statement is incorrect. The presence of BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations influences risk, not necessarily prognosis or treatment success.
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