A school-aged client was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which symptom did the client's parents most likely report?
Gained 10 lb (4.5 kg) within one month.
Drinks more fluids than previously.
Voids only one or two times per day.
Refuses to eat favorite meals at home.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Gained 10 lb (4.5 kg) within one month. Weight gain is not typically associated with the onset of type 1 diabetes. In fact, weight loss is more common due to the body's inability to use glucose properly.
B. Drinks more fluids than previously. Increased thirst (polydipsia) is a classic symptom of type 1 diabetes due to high blood sugar levels causing dehydration.
C. Voids only one or two times per day. Increased urination (polyuria) is a common symptom of type 1 diabetes as the body attempts to excrete excess glucose, so decreased urination is unlikely.
D. Refuses to eat favorite meals at home. While changes in appetite can occur, it is not a primary symptom of type 1 diabetes. Increased hunger (polyphagia) is more typical.
Nursing Test Bank
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.
Activity restriction does not directly decrease abdominal pain. Pain management in Crohn’s disease is typically achieved through medications, dietary adjustments, and addressing inflammation.
B. While activity restriction may indirectly help decrease abdominal pain by reducing inflammation and promoting healing, it is not the primary purpose of the restriction.
C.The primary goal of activity restriction in Crohn's disease is to reduce intestinal activity. By limiting physical exertion, the intestines are less stimulated, which can help reduce inflammation and give the digestive system a chance to rest and recover.
D. While activity restriction may help control diarrhea episodes by reducing physical stress on the intestines, the primary purpose is to promote healing and reduce inflammation. Control of diarrhea may be achieved through other interventions such as dietary modifications and
medication management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cover client with cooling blanket.
This could help manage the fever but is not the highest priority in the context of acute adrenal crisis.
B. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
Pain management is important, but it is not the immediate priority in a life-threatening adrenal crisis.
C. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
This is the correct answer because the client is experiencing hypotension (low blood pressure), which is critical in an acute adrenal crisis. IV fluids are essential to restore blood pressure and perfusion.
D. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
Managing the fever is important, but not the first priority. The client’s hemodynamic instability needs to be addressed immediately.
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