The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with acute gastritis caused by drinking contaminated water. The nurse should emphasize the need to report the onset of which problem?

Abdominal cramping.

Bruising of the skin.

Low-grade fever.

Bloody emesis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale
While abdominal cramping can be a symptom of gastritis, it is not typically a sign of a serious complication that would require immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Bruising of the skin is not typically associated with gastritis. If the client notices unexplained bruising, they should report it, but it is not the most critical symptom to watch for.
Choice C rationale

A low-grade fever can be a symptom of gastritis, but it is not typically a sign of a serious complication. The client should monitor their temperature, but it is not the most critical symptom to watch for.
Choice D rationale
Bloody emesis can be a sign of a serious complication of gastritis, such as a bleeding ulcer. If the client notices bloody or coffee-ground emesis, they should seek medical attention immediately.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Activating the synchronization mode is important during cardioversion to avoid delivering a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarization, which could potentially cause a life-threatening arrhythmia. However, it is not the most crucial action.
Choice B rationale
Choosing a monitor lead with a tall R wave can help ensure that the cardioverter-defibrillator can sense the patient’s intrinsic cardiac activity. However, this is not the most crucial action.
Choice C rationale
Administering the prescribed sedative is the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion. Sedation is necessary to ensure patient comfort and cooperation during the procedure, as cardioversion can be painful.
Choice D rationale

Verifying the prothrombin time (PT) is important in patients receiving anticoagulation therapy, as atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation. However, it is not the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion.

A. Reinforce the connection of the chest tube to the container with tape. B. Immediately clamp the chest tube with a plastic clamp. C. Apply an occlusive dressing over the site of the chest tube. D. Ensure that the chest tubing is neither kinked nor hanging low.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Reinforcing the connection of the chest tube to the container with tape is not the immediate action to be taken when a client becomes suddenly short of breath and anxious. This action might be necessary if the connection between the chest tube and the container is loose, but it does not address the immediate need of the client.
Choice B rationale
If a client with a chest tube becomes suddenly short of breath and anxious, the nurse should immediately clamp the chest tube with a plastic clamp. This is because the chest tube might have been disconnected from the water seal chamber, and clamping the tube can prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a tension pneumothorax.
Choice C rationale

Applying an occlusive dressing over the site of the chest tube is not the immediate action to be taken when a client becomes suddenly short of breath and anxious. This action might be necessary if the chest tube is accidentally removed, but it does not address the immediate need of the client.
Choice D rationale
Ensuring that the chest tubing is neither kinked nor hanging low is an important part of the ongoing care for a client with a chest tube, but it is not the immediate action to be taken when a client becomes suddenly short of breath and anxious.

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The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with acute gastritis caused by drinking contaminated water. The nurse should emphasize the need to report the onset of which problem?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with a right hemopneumothorax has a chest tube connected to suction. While turning to the left side, the client becomes suddenly short of breath and anxious. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?

The nurse is collecting a heel-stick blood specimen for a neonatal screen, which includes thyroxine (T4) and thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) levels, prior to discharging a 2-day-old patient. When the parents ask why these tests are being conducted, which explanation should the nurse provide?

A patient with neuroleptic malignant syndrome has been prescribed dantrolene 1.5 mg/kg IV. The patient weighs 132 pounds. The label on the 250 mg vial reads, “Reconstitute with 5 mL sterile water for injection, USP. Reconstitution yields 50 mg/mL.”. How many mL should the nurse administer?

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A client with hepatic failure has an electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?