A client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome receives a prescription for dantrolene 1.5 mg/kg IV. The client weighs 132 pounds.
The label on the 250 mg vial reads, “Reconstitute with 5 mL sterile water for injection, USP. Reconstitution yields 50 mg/mL.”. How many mL should the nurse administer?
The Correct Answer is ["1.8"]
The client weighs 132 pounds. To convert pounds to kilograms, divide the weight in pounds by
2.2. So, the client’s weight in kilograms is: Step 1: 132 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg The prescription for dantrolene is 1.5 mg/kg. To find out how many milligrams the client should receive, multiply the client’s weight in kilograms by the dosage in mg/kg: Step 2: 60 kg × 1.5 mg/kg = 90 mg The vial is reconstituted to yield a concentration of 50 mg/mL. To find out how many mL the nurse should administer, divide the total dosage in milligrams by the concentration in mg/mL: Step 3: 90 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 1.8 mL So, the nurse should administer 1.8 mL of dantrolene.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mixing the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not the best method for administering the medication. This would dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Diluting the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would significantly dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Asking the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would not provide the immediate glucose boost needed to counteract insulin shock.
Choice D rationale
Pushing the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the best method for administering the medication. This allows for rapid administration of a concentrated glucose solution, which is necessary to quickly raise blood glucose levels in a patient experiencing insulin shock.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.