A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.
Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
Measure each calf’s girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents the formation of blood clots. One of the most common and serious side effects of heparin therapy is bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to observe for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, black tarry stools, hematuria, and changes in mental status. Regular laboratory monitoring of the client’s coagulation status, specifically the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is also necessary to ensure therapeutic levels of heparin without causing excessive bleeding.
Choice B rationale
While mobilization can help prevent the formation of new clots, it is not the most important intervention for a client who is already on a heparin protocol for DVT. Mobilization can potentially dislodge the existing clot, leading to a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
Choice C rationale
Although it is important to monitor vital signs in all clients, assessing blood pressure and heart rate every 4 hours is not the most important intervention for a client on a heparin protocol.
Changes in blood pressure and heart rate are not specific to heparin therapy and do not provide direct information about the effectiveness or side effects of the medication.
Choice D rationale
Measuring each calf’s girth can help evaluate the progression of edema in the affected leg, but it is not the most important intervention for a client on a heparin protocol. While it can provide information about the local effects of the DVT, it does not address the systemic anticoagulation effects of heparin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Performing a thorough physical assessment is crucial when elder mistreatment is suspected. It helps to identify any signs of physical abuse or neglect.
Choice B rationale
Developing a safety plan is an important step in ensuring the safety of the elder. This plan can include strategies to avoid potential harm and steps to take if the elder feels unsafe.
Choice C rationale
Taking photographs to document the abuse or neglect can provide concrete evidence of the mistreatment. These photographs can be used in investigations and legal proceedings.
Choice F rationale
Completing a comprehensive history is necessary to understand the full context of the elder’s situation. This includes the elder’s health status, living conditions, and the nature of their relationship with the caregiver.
Choice H rationale
Reporting findings to Adult Protective Services is a critical step in addressing elder mistreatment. Adult Protective Services can conduct further investigations and take necessary actions to protect the elder.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Scheduling frequent rest periods can help manage the fatigue and concentration problems reported by the client. These symptoms are common in clients with CKD and elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels.
Choice A rationale
Administering PRN oxygen may not be necessary unless the client is showing signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. There is no indication of this in the question.
Choice B rationale
Providing high protein snacks is not recommended for clients with CKD. High protein diets can increase the workload on the kidneys and worsen kidney function.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring glucose levels every 4 hours is not directly related to the client’s reported symptoms or the elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels.
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