The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with gout in the left great toe who received a prescription for prednisone 30 mg by mouth to be administered each day. Which symptom should the nurse explain is most important for the client to report to the healthcare provider?

Gastric Irritation.

Moon facies.

Abdominal striae.

Rapid weight gain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Gastric Irritation.

While gastric irritation is a common side effect of prednisone, it is not as critical as some other potential adverse effects and can often be managed with medication or dietary changes.

B. Moon facies.

Moon facies is a sign of Cushing's syndrome, a potential long-term side effect of prednisone, but it does not require immediate reporting compared to more acute symptoms.

C. Abdominal striae.
Abdominal striae (stretch marks) are a long-term side effect of corticosteroids like prednisone, but they are not typically an urgent concern.

D. Rapid weight gain.

This is the correct answer because rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which may be a sign of more serious side effects such as heart failure or severe hypertension. It requires prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale for A: Redressing the abdominal incision is crucial as the dressing is no longer occlusive, which could lead to infection. An intact dressing also prevents the client from picking at the site, which could cause further harm or delay healing.
Rationale for B: Leaving the lights on might help with visual perception for a client with dementia, but it does not directly address the immediate risk of infection or the client's interference with the dressing.
Rationale for C: Applying restraints could be considered for a client who is at risk of harming themselves, but this should be a last resort after other interventions have been tried due to the potential for physical and psychological harm.
Rationale for D: Replacing the IV site with a smaller gauge is not indicated by the pink insertion site alone and does not address the client's confusion or behavior towards the dressing.

A. Remove dentures or other oral appliance. B. Elevate the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle. C. Lift and lock the side rails in place. D. Apply the client's positive airway pressure device.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Removing dentures or other oral appliances is not directly related to managing obstructive sleep apnea. While it may be necessary for certain procedures or assessments, it does not address the client's OSA during narcotic administration.

B. Elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle is a standard practice to prevent aspiration during narcotic administration, but it does not specifically address the client's obstructive sleep apnea.

C. Lifting and locking the side rails in place is important for client safety but does not directly address the client's obstructive sleep apnea.

D. Applying the client's positive airway pressure (PAP) device is crucial for managing obstructive sleep apnea, especially when administering a narcotic analgesic, which can further depress respiratory function. The PAP device helps maintain airway patency and prevent apneic episodes, reducing the risk of respiratory complications in clients with OSA.

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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with gout in the left great toe who received a prescription for prednisone 30 mg by mouth to be administered each day. Which symptom should the nurse explain is most important for the client to report to the healthcare provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to administer a narcotic analgesic to a client with a fractured femur who also has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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