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Exhibits

Which 2 orders should the nurse complete first?

Acetaminophen 350 mg PO every 6 hours for temperature greater than 101° F (38.3°C)

Place the client on a cardiorespiratory monitor

Start oxygen 3 L/minute via nasal cannula

Chest x ray

Run 0.99% sodium chloride IV infusion at 150 ml/hour

Start a peripheral IV

Sputum culture

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C

A. Acetaminophen 350 mg PO every 6 hours for temperature greater than 101°F (38.3°C): While controlling fever is important, it is not as urgent as ensuring adequate oxygenation and
monitoring of vital signs. Fever can be managed once the client's respiratory status is stabilized.

B. Place the client on a cardiorespiratory monitor

The correct answer is B. Placing the client on a cardiorespiratory monitor is crucial to continuously monitor vital signs, including heart rate, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and cardiac rhythm. Given the client's reported difficulty breathing, this order takes priority to assess the severity of respiratory distress and ensure timely intervention if needed.

C. Start oxygen 3 L/minute via nasal cannula

The correct answer is C. Initiating oxygen therapy is essential for improving oxygenation and respiratory function, especially in a patient with reported difficulty breathing. Administering oxygen can help alleviate hypoxemia and reduce the workload on the respiratory system. This intervention takes precedence in addressing the client's acute respiratory symptoms.
D.   Chest x-ray: A chest x-ray is important for further evaluation of the client's respiratory status, but it is not as immediate as placing the client on a cardiorespiratory monitor and initiating oxygen therapy.
E.   Run 0.9% sodium chloride IV infusion at 150 mL/hour: Initiating IV fluids is important, but it is not as urgent as addressing the client's respiratory distress and oxygenation needs.
F.   Start a peripheral IV: Starting a peripheral IV is necessary for administering medications and fluids, but it can be done after placing the client on a monitor and starting oxygen therapy.

G.   Sputum culture: While obtaining a sputum culture is important for identifying the causative organism of the respiratory infection, it is not as urgent as addressing the client's immediate respiratory distress.
H.   NPO: NPO status may be necessary for certain diagnostic tests or procedures, but it does not take priority over addressing the client's respiratory distress and oxygenation needs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Right ear hearing loss. While significant, right ear hearing loss is not immediately life- threatening.
B. Difficulty with balance. Balance issues may be concerning but are not typically indicative of a life-threatening condition.
C. Intensifying headache. An intensifying headache can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention.
D. Facial numbness. Facial numbness can indicate nerve involvement but is not as immediately concerning as an intensifying headache, which could indicate a serious neurological issue such as bleeding or swelling in the brain.

A. Leave the client's room so she can act out her anxiety. B. State it is unacceptable to undress during the interview. C. Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior. D. Change to less anxiety-provoking questions.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A: Leaving the client alone could increase the risk of harm to herself or others and does not address the immediate need for safety and boundaries.
B: Clearly stating that undressing is unacceptable sets immediate boundaries, which is essential in managing acute behavioral situations, ensuring the client's dignity, and maintaining a professional environment.
C: Ignoring the behavior does not provide any guidance or boundaries for the client, which could lead to escalation or reinforce the inappropriate behavior.
D: While changing to less anxiety-provoking questions may be helpful, it does not directly address the behavior at hand, which could lead to further inappropriate actions or misunderstandings about acceptable behavior during the assessment.

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Exhibits Which 2 orders should the nurse complete first?

Nursing Test Bank

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The nurse is preparing a client with an acoustic neuroma for a magnetic resonance image (MRI). Which client complaint is life-threatening and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

While the nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a female client with bipolar disorder, the client suddenly begins to take off her clothes and throw them about the room. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Exhibits Based on the client's status at 1400, the nurse should plan to do which of the following? Select all that apply.

Exhibits here The nurse places the client on a cardiorespiratory monitor and places the nasal cannula on the client. The nurse then completes an assessment and documents it in the chart. For each body system, click to specify the assessment findings that indicates hypoxia.

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The nurse is teaching a primigravida about preeclampsia. What finding(s) are indicators of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.

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The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Oxygen at 5 L/minute per nasal cannula is being administered to a 10-year-old child with pneumonia. When planning care for this child, which principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?

Exhibits

Which 2 orders should the nurse complete first?