The nurse is caring for a client with decompensated liver disease who is experiencing fever, chills, and abdominal tenderness.

Following a paracentesis, the nurse receives laboratory results of the ascitic fluid that show the polymorphonuclear leukocyte count is 425/mm (0.42 x 10/L). After notifying the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse take next?

Review serum protein levels

Begin abdominal girth measurements

Initiate antibiotic therapy

Assess neurological status

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale
Reviewing serum protein levels can provide valuable information about a client’s nutritional status and liver function. However, in the context of a client with decompensated liver disease who is experiencing fever, chills, and abdominal tenderness, and has a high polymorphonuclear leukocyte count in ascitic fluid, initiating antibiotic therapy is the priority.
Choice B rationale
Beginning abdominal girth measurements can be useful for monitoring the progression of ascites in a client with liver disease. However, in this scenario, the priority is to treat the potential infection indicated by the client’s symptoms and lab results.
Choice C rationale

Initiating antibiotic therapy is the correct intervention in this case. The client’s symptoms and the high polymorphonuclear leukocyte count in the ascitic fluid suggest spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, a serious complication of cirrhosis that requires immediate antibiotic treatment.
Choice D rationale
Assessing neurological status is important in clients with liver disease, as they are at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. However, in this scenario, the priority is to treat the potential infection indicated by the client’s symptoms and lab results.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Administering the medication at 1000, 1600, 2200, and 0400 would not be the best schedule because it does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. This could lead to periods of subtherapeutic medication levels and periods of potential toxicity.
Choice B rationale
Administering the medication with meals and a bedtime snack is not the best schedule for this medication. While some medications need to be administered with food, there is no indication

that this medication needs to be. Furthermore, this schedule could lead to uneven distribution of the medication throughout the day.
Choice C rationale
Giving the medication in equally divided doses during waking hours is not the best schedule because it does not take into account the half-life of the medication or the patient’s sleep schedule. This could lead to subtherapeutic levels of the medication during the night.
Choice D rationale
Administering the medication at 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000 is the best schedule for this medication. It evenly distributes the doses throughout the day, which can help maintain a therapeutic level of the medication and reduce the risk of toxicity.

A. Nadolol. B. Captopril. C. Digoxin. D. Hydrochlorothiazide.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Nadolol is a beta-blocker that can decrease heart rate and contractility, which can potentially exacerbate heart failure and lead to cardiogenic shock.

Choice B rationale

Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is often used in the treatment of heart failure. It works by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart.

Choice C rationale

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat heart failure and certain heart arrhythmias. It works by increasing the force of the heart’s contractions, which can improve heart function.

Choice D rationale

Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that is often used in the treatment of heart failure. It works by helping the body get rid of excess fluid, which can reduce the workload of the heart.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which of these prescribed medications places the client at risk for cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse notices the presence of clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a patient who has just returned to the unit following lumbar spinal surgery. What immediate action should the nurse take?

A client is experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal from the benzodiazepine alprazolam. What is the best initial nursing action?

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. The client reports feeling fatigued and is unable to concentrate during the morning assessments. What action should the nurse take based on these findings?

A male adult is admitted due to an overdose of acetaminophen. After being transferred to the mental health unit, the patient is informed that he has liver damage. What is the most crucial information for the nurse to include in the patient’s discharge plan?

A client who is hypotensive is receiving dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, intravenously (IV) at the rate of 8 mg/kg/min. Which intervention should the nurse implement while administering this medication?

A client on the mental health unit has been displaying signs of agitation, such as scowling and pacing rapidly up and down the hallway for several minutes. Which behaviors should the nurse prioritize for monitoring?

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s right hand and fingers spasm when taking the blood pressure using the same arm. After confirming the presence of the spasms, which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is preparing a dose of teriparatide for a patient. The medication is labeled as “750 mcg/2.4 mL”. How many mL should the nurse administer to deliver a dose of 60 mcg