An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack. This schedule does not ensure that the medication is administered at equally spaced intervals throughout the day, as required for 4 divided doses.
B. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400. This schedule is not practical or feasible, as it includes a dose in the middle of the night.
C. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. This schedule provides equally divided doses at intervals that are practical and coincide with the client's waking hours.
D. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours. While this option mentions administering doses during waking hours, it does not specify specific times for administration, unlike option C.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"B"}
Explanation
A. anaphylaxis
The correct answer is A. Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur in response to medication administration. The client's symptoms of dizziness, headache, burning feeling on extremities, and redness on face and extremities, along with the sudden onset of symptoms after starting vancomycin infusion, are indicative of a possible anaphylactic reaction.
B. arrhythmias
The correct answer is B. Arrhythmias refer to abnormal heart rhythms, which can be
triggered by various factors including medication reactions. Given the client's history of symptomatic bradycardia and the sudden onset of symptoms after starting vancomycin infusion, arrhythmias such as bradycardia or other rhythm disturbances are a concern.
C. Cardiac arrest
The correct answer is C. Cardiac arrest is the cessation of normal heart function, which can be precipitated by severe arrhythmias or anaphylaxis. The client's symptoms, along with the drop in blood pressure, indicate a potential risk of progressing to cardiac arrest if not promptly treated.
D. Necrosis
Necrosis, or tissue death, is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the scenario. While vancomycin infusion can potentially cause tissue irritation or damage at the
injection site, the symptoms described suggest a systemic reaction rather than localized tissue necrosis.
E. Renal failure
Renal failure is not directly indicated by the symptoms described in the scenario. While vancomycin can be nephrotoxic in some cases, the symptoms of dizziness, headache, and redness are more suggestive of an allergic or cardiovascular reaction.
F. Peripheral edema
Peripheral edema, or swelling in the extremities, is not indicated by the symptoms described in the scenario. The client's symptoms, such as dizziness, headache, and redness, are more
indicative of a systemic reaction rather than localized swelling.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. An increase in breath sounds may suggest improved airflow, but it does not necessarily indicate effective mobilization of secretions.
B. Absence of fine crackles indicates that there are no longer small airway secretions or fluid in the lungs, suggesting that the chest physiotherapy was effective in mobilizing secretions.
C. While the absence of coarse crackles is also a positive finding, fine crackles specifically indicate fluid or secretions in the small airways, making their absence a more direct indicator of the effectiveness of chest physiotherapy.
D. An increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or worsening of the condition, rather than effectiveness of the chest physiotherapy in mobilizing secretions.
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