An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Timing with meals is inappropriate for IV antibiotics because it does not maintain consistent blood levels.
B. Spacing doses every 6 hours around the clock maintains therapeutic levels and is standard for a 4-times-daily IV antibiotic.
C. This schedule leaves a long gap overnight, risking subtherapeutic levels and decreased effectiveness.
D. Limiting doses to waking hours creates uneven intervals, which may compromise treatment efficacy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. Swollen hands can indicate edema, which is a common sign of preeclampsia. Swelling, especially in the hands, face, or feet, can be due to elevated blood pressure and should be reported to the healthcare provider.
B. Headaches are a concerning symptom in preeclampsia, especially when they are persistent or severe. This is often due to high blood pressure and requires medical evaluation to prevent complications like eclampsia or stroke.
C. Blurred vision is a serious indicator of preeclampsia as it reflects possible neurological involvement or increased blood pressure, which can affect blood flow to the brain and eyes. This is an urgent symptom that needs prompt medical attention.
D. Lack of appetite is not a common or specific symptom of preeclampsia. It may be present in other conditions, but it is not a key indicator of preeclampsia.
E. Chills and fever are typically associated with infections, not preeclampsia. These symptoms do not indicate the presence of preeclampsia and are unrelated to hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
F. Urinary frequency is more commonly related to pregnancy in general due to the growing uterus pressing on the bladder. It is not specifically associated with preeclampsia. In preeclampsia, a decrease in urine output may be more concerning as it can signal kidney involvement.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Wearing an N95 respiratory mask is not typically required for routine care of a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus unless performing procedures that generate aerosols.
B. Negative pressure rooms are generally reserved for patients with airborne infections like tuberculosis; respiratory syncytial virus does not typically require isolation in a negative pressure room.
C. Using a designated stethoscope helps prevent the spread of infection to other patients by avoiding cross-contamination.
D. Removing the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room is appropriate for maintaining infection control but is not specific to caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
