A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes (3/10). The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 130 beats/min with the decelerations happening after the mother's contractions, Nadirs happening at the end of the uterine contractions. The interpretation of this test is said to be
Select one:

Positive

Negative

Satisfactory

Reactive

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

a.   A positive CST indicates late decelerations that persist in more than 50% of the contractions, which is not the case in this scenario.
b.   A negative CST indicates the absence of late decelerations, which is not the case in this scenario.
c.   A satisfactory CST indicates that there are no late decelerations, and the test is considered normal.
d.   Reactive is not a term used to interpret a CST.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.

b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.

A. 4-2-1-0-3 B. 4-1-1-1-3 C. 4-1-2-0-3 D. 4-3-0-0-3

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

a. In this case, the woman is pregnant for the fourth time, so her gravidity is 4.

She has one child born at 39 weeks, another child born at 40 weeks, and one child born at 36.2 weeks. The first two are considered term births, and the last one is considered a preterm birth. Therefore, her term is 1 and her preterm is 2. She has no abortions, so her abortion is 0. She has three living children, so her living children is 3. Hence, her GTPAL is 4-2-1-0-3.
b. This indicates 1 full-term pregnancy, 1 preterm pregnancy, and 3 living child.

c. This would indicate 1 full-term pregnancy, 2 preterm pregnancies, and 3 living children.
d. 4-3-0-0-3: This would indicate 3 full-term pregnancies and 3 living children.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy increase the incidence of Select one:

A nurse is caring for a client who is a primigravida, at term, and having contractions but is stating that she is "not really sure if she is in labor or not." Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a sign of true labor?

A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test performed. The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is around 130 beats/min, with four accelerations in 20 minutes, lasting 20 seconds each and the FHR increased more than 25 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The nurse provides which of the following explanations about this test to the client?

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on the fetal lungs having reached maturity. Which of the following findings indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

Which finding on a prenatal visit at 12 weeks could suggest a hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy)? Select one:

A nurse is caring for a client in the second prenatal visit, the laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

The nurse has received a report regarding her patient in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 2 cm, 80%, and +2. The nurse's interpretation of this assessment is that: Select one: