A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes (3/10). The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 130 beats/min with the decelerations happening after the mother's contractions, Nadirs happening at the end of the uterine contractions. The interpretation of this test is said to be
Select one:
Positive
Negative
Satisfactory
Reactive
Reactive
The Correct Answer is C
a. A positive CST indicates late decelerations that persist in more than 50% of the contractions, which is not the case in this scenario.
b. A negative CST indicates the absence of late decelerations, which is not the case in this scenario.
c. A satisfactory CST indicates that there are no late decelerations, and the test is considered normal.
d. Reactive is not a term used to interpret a CST.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
a. Inevitable abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding, cramping, and dilated cervical os.
b. Septic abortion is associated with infection and may present with fever, chills, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
c. Incomplete abortion involves vaginal bleeding, cramping, and dilation of the cervical os with passage of some products of conception.
d. A missed abortion is when there is no bleeding or cramping, but the pregnancy has stopped developing and there is no fetal heartbeat. The cervix may be closed or slightly open, and the uterus may be smaller than expected for gestational age.
e. Threatened abortion involves vaginal bleeding with a closed cervical os and no passage of products of conception. It signifies a potential abortion, but the pregnancy may continue.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.
b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.
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