A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is gravida 1 and para 0. The client was admitted to the hospital at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
Blood pressure 160/115
Anasarca
Proteinuria 3+
Deep tendon reflexes
The Correct Answer is D
a. This is a sign of severe preeclampsia.
b. This is a sign of severe preeclampsia.
c. This is a sign of severe preeclampsia.
d. Deep tendon reflexes are not affected by preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
a. ROA means right occiput anterior, which would imply that the fetal back is on the mother's right side.
b. RSA means right sacrum anterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are in the pelvis inlet and the fetal head is in the fundus.
c. LOA, which means left occiput anterior means that the fetus is in a longitudinal lie, with its head as the presenting part, facing the right posterior quadrant of the mother's pelvis, and its back on the mother's left anterior side. This is one of the most common and favorable fetal positions for delivery.
d. LSP means left sacrum posterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are on the mother's left side and slightly rotated toward the back (posterior).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
a. Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation, which may be accompanied by abdominal cramping and pain.
b. Dyspareunia refers to painful sexual intercourse, which is not described in the scenario.
c. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods, which is not described in the scenario.
d. The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with premenstrual syndrome, which includes physical and emotional symptoms such as abdominal cramping and pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, and irritability that occur before and during menstruation.
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