A nurse is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Continuous fetal monitoring
Ambulate to induce labor
Obtain a daily weight
Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause fetal distress, growth restriction, or demise. Continuous fetal monitoring can help detect and evaluate the fetal heart rate, variability, accelerations, decelerations, and contractions, and guide the management and intervention.
Choice B reason: This order requires clarification, as it is an inappropriate and contraindicated order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause seizures, stroke, or organ failure. Ambulation can increase the blood pressure, stimulate the labor, and worsen the condition. The client should be on bed rest, with the head of the bed elevated, and receive medications to lower the blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice C reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause edema, proteinuria, or oliguria. Obtaining a daily weight can help monitor the fluid status, the severity of the edema, and the response to the treatment.
Choice D reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause hyperreflexia, clonus, or seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour can help evaluate the neuromuscular irritability, the risk of eclampsia, and the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Painless red vaginal bleeding is the most characteristic finding of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers the cervical opening and can cause bleeding in the third trimester. Painless red vaginal bleeding occurs because the placenta is detached from the lower uterine segment as the cervix dilates or effaces, and the blood vessels are torn. The bleeding can be mild or severe, and it can recur or persist until delivery.
Choice B reason: Intermittent abdominal pain following passage of bloody mucus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests normal labor or preterm labor. Intermittent abdominal pain is caused by uterine contractions, which can be regular or irregular, and can increase in frequency, duration, and intensity. Bloody mucus is the mucus plug that is expelled from the cervix as it dilates or effaces, and it can be tinged with blood or streaked with blood.
Choice C reason: Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that indicates abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Increasing abdominal pain is caused by the bleeding and the hematoma formation behind the placenta, which can compress the uterine muscle and the nerve endings. Nonrelaxed uterus is a sign of uterine hypertonicity, which can reduce the blood flow and the oxygen delivery to the fetus.
Choice D reason: Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests ectopic pregnancy, which is a condition where the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube. Abdominal pain is caused by the rupture of the tube and the bleeding into the peritoneal cavity, which can irritate the diaphragm and the abdominal wall. Scant red vaginal bleeding is a sign of implantation bleeding, which can occur when the fertilized ovum attaches to the tube wall.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: To call for an immediate magnesium sulfate level is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a diagnostic test that requires a blood sample and a laboratory analysis, which can take time and delay the treatment. The nurse should first stop the infusion and notify the provider, as the client is showing signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is a life-threatening condition that can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, or coma.
Choice B reason: To prepare to administer hydralazine is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the blood pressure and the fetal status. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that lowers the blood pressure and prevents the complications of severe preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, stroke, or organ damage. However, the client's blood pressure is not very high and is not the main problem at the moment.
Choice C reason: To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion is the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is the first and most important intervention that can reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate and restore the neuromuscular function and the respiratory rate. Magnesium sulfate is a drug that prevents seizures and lowers the blood pressure in clients with severe preeclampsia, but it can also cause toxicity if the dose is too high or the infusion is too fast.
Choice D reason: To administer oxygen is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that improves the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs, but does not address the underlying cause of the respiratory depression, which is the magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should administer oxygen only after stopping the infusion and assessing the oxygen saturation and the respiratory status.
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