A nurse is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

Continuous fetal monitoring

Ambulate to induce labor

Obtain a daily weight

Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause fetal distress, growth restriction, or demise. Continuous fetal monitoring can help detect and evaluate the fetal heart rate, variability, accelerations, decelerations, and contractions, and guide the management and intervention.

Choice B reason: This order requires clarification, as it is an inappropriate and contraindicated order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause seizures, stroke, or organ failure. Ambulation can increase the blood pressure, stimulate the labor, and worsen the condition. The client should be on bed rest, with the head of the bed elevated, and receive medications to lower the blood pressure and prevent seizures.

Choice C reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause edema, proteinuria, or oliguria. Obtaining a daily weight can help monitor the fluid status, the severity of the edema, and the response to the treatment.

Choice D reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause hyperreflexia, clonus, or seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour can help evaluate the neuromuscular irritability, the risk of eclampsia, and the effect of magnesium sulfate.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Assisting the client with transferring to the gynecology unit is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it does not address the client's emotional needs or preferences. The nurse should first assess the client's coping and grieving process, and provide support and comfort.

Choice B reason: Offering the mother private time with the newborn is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can facilitate the bonding and closure process, and help the client express her feelings and emotions. The nurse should respect the client's wishes and cultural beliefs regarding the viewing and holding of the stillborn infant, and provide a quiet and private environment.

Choice C reason: Administering alprazolam 0.5 mg PO is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the client's condition and history. The nurse should first use nonpharmacological methods, such as active listening, therapeutic communication, and counseling, to help the client cope and manage her anxiety and grief.

Choice D reason: Contacting the health care facility's clergy is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it may not be appropriate or desired by the client. The nurse should first ask the client if she wants any spiritual or religious support, and respect her decision and beliefs.

A. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation B. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation C. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation D. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.

Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.

Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.

Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.

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A nurse is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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