A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?
Blunt force trauma
Hypertension
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Cigarette smoking
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.
Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.
Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.
Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing a dark, quiet environment is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it can help reduce the client's blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice B reason: Evaluating neurologic status every 12 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status every 2 to 4 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of cerebral edema or eclampsia.
Choice C reason: Assessing respiratory status every 8 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status every 1 to 2 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of pulmonary edema or respiratory depression.
Choice D reason: Ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should have calcium gluconate on hand and know how to administer it in case of an emergency.
Choice E reason: Administering magnesium sulfate IV is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the drug of choice for preventing and treating seizures in clients with severe gestational hypertension. The nurse should follow the protocol for magnesium sulfate administration and monitor the client's vital signs, urine output, reflexes, and serum magnesium levels.
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