A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?
Blunt force trauma
Hypertension
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Cigarette smoking
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.
Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.
Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.
Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 min are normal and expected in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which lasts from 4 to 8 cm of cervical dilation. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider.
Choice B reason: Each contraction lasting longer than 110 seconds is abnormal and concerning, as it can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can reduce the blood flow to the placenta and fetus, and cause fetal distress. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as stopping oxytocin infusion, administering tocolytics, or performing an emergency cesarean section.
Choice C reason: Contractions are strong in intensity are also normal and expected in the active phase of the first stage of labor, as they facilitate the cervical dilation and effacement. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider.
Choice D reason: Client reports feeling contractions in lower back are common and not harmful, especially if the fetus is in the occiput posterior position, which causes the fetal head to press against the sacrum. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can offer comfort measures, such as massage, counterpressure, heat, or position changes.
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