The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman with type 2 diabetes about her diet during pregnancy. Which client statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful?
"I'll basically follow the same diet that I was following before I became pregnant."
"Because I need extra protein, I'll have to increase my intake of milk and meat."
"I'll adjust my diet and insulin based on the results of my urine tests for glucose."
"Pregnancy affects insulin production, so I'll need to make adjustments in my diet."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: "I'll basically follow the same diet that I was following before I became pregnant." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the need for dietary changes during pregnancy. The client should follow a diet that is individualized, balanced, and consistent in carbohydrate intake, and that meets the nutritional needs of pregnancy.
Choice B reason: "Because I need extra protein, I'll have to increase my intake of milk and meat." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the role of protein in diabetes management. The client should consume adequate but not excessive amounts of protein, and choose lean sources of protein, such as poultry, fish, eggs, and legumes.
Choice C reason: "I'll adjust my diet and insulin based on the results of my urine tests for glucose." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the limitations of urine tests for glucose. The client should monitor her blood glucose levels regularly, and adjust her diet and insulin accordingly, under the guidance of the provider. Urine tests for glucose are not accurate or reliable indicators of blood glucose levels.
Choice D reason: "Pregnancy affects insulin production, so I'll need to make adjustments in my diet." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the impact of pregnancy on diabetes. The client should be aware that pregnancy can cause insulin resistance, especially in the second and third trimesters, and that her diet may need to be modified to achieve optimal glycemic control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preeclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. Preeclampsia can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, but it is not a complication of it. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site, but rather headaches, blurred vision, or epigastric pain.
Choice B reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it is a rare and fatal condition that occurs when the amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and causes an allergic reaction. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy would cause respiratory distress, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is not the correct answer, as it is a bacterial infection of the reproductive tract that occurs after childbirth. Puerperal infection can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Puerperal infection would cause fever, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, and it is indicated by the petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. Disseminated intravascular coagulation would also cause a low platelet count, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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