Which assessments are included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP)? (Select all that apply.)
AFI
Fetal heart rate
Fetal movement
Fetal tone
Placental grade
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.
Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.
Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.
Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.
Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.
Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.
Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.
Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.
Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.
Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.
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