A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. What is the nurse's highest priority during a seizure?
To stay with the client and call for help
To suction the mouth to prevent aspiration
To administer oxygen by mask
To insert an oral airway
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: To stay with the client and call for help is the highest priority during a seizure, because it ensures the safety of the client and the fetus, and allows the nurse to monitor the vital signs and fetal heart rate. The nurse should also protect the client from injury and turn the client to the side to prevent aspiration.
Choice B reason: To suction the mouth to prevent aspiration is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it can cause more harm than good. Suctioning can stimulate the gag reflex and increase the risk of vomiting and aspiration. It can also injure the oral mucosa and trigger another seizure.
Choice C reason: To administer oxygen by mask is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it may not be effective or necessary. Oxygen administration can be difficult or impossible during a seizure, and it may not improve the oxygen saturation or fetal outcome. Oxygen should only be given if hypoxia is confirmed by pulse oximetry or arterial blood gas analysis.
Choice D reason: To insert an oral airway is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it can be dangerous and contraindicated. Inserting an oral airway can damage the teeth and tongue, and increase the risk of vomiting and aspiration. It can also provoke another seizure or laryngospasm. An oral airway should only be used if the client is unconscious and has no gag reflex.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.
Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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