A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. What is the nurse's highest priority during a seizure?
To stay with the client and call for help
To suction the mouth to prevent aspiration
To administer oxygen by mask
To insert an oral airway
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: To stay with the client and call for help is the highest priority during a seizure, because it ensures the safety of the client and the fetus, and allows the nurse to monitor the vital signs and fetal heart rate. The nurse should also protect the client from injury and turn the client to the side to prevent aspiration.
Choice B reason: To suction the mouth to prevent aspiration is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it can cause more harm than good. Suctioning can stimulate the gag reflex and increase the risk of vomiting and aspiration. It can also injure the oral mucosa and trigger another seizure.
Choice C reason: To administer oxygen by mask is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it may not be effective or necessary. Oxygen administration can be difficult or impossible during a seizure, and it may not improve the oxygen saturation or fetal outcome. Oxygen should only be given if hypoxia is confirmed by pulse oximetry or arterial blood gas analysis.
Choice D reason: To insert an oral airway is not the highest priority during a seizure, because it can be dangerous and contraindicated. Inserting an oral airway can damage the teeth and tongue, and increase the risk of vomiting and aspiration. It can also provoke another seizure or laryngospasm. An oral airway should only be used if the client is unconscious and has no gag reflex.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Painless red vaginal bleeding is the most characteristic finding of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers the cervical opening and can cause bleeding in the third trimester. Painless red vaginal bleeding occurs because the placenta is detached from the lower uterine segment as the cervix dilates or effaces, and the blood vessels are torn. The bleeding can be mild or severe, and it can recur or persist until delivery.
Choice B reason: Intermittent abdominal pain following passage of bloody mucus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests normal labor or preterm labor. Intermittent abdominal pain is caused by uterine contractions, which can be regular or irregular, and can increase in frequency, duration, and intensity. Bloody mucus is the mucus plug that is expelled from the cervix as it dilates or effaces, and it can be tinged with blood or streaked with blood.
Choice C reason: Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that indicates abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Increasing abdominal pain is caused by the bleeding and the hematoma formation behind the placenta, which can compress the uterine muscle and the nerve endings. Nonrelaxed uterus is a sign of uterine hypertonicity, which can reduce the blood flow and the oxygen delivery to the fetus.
Choice D reason: Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests ectopic pregnancy, which is a condition where the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube. Abdominal pain is caused by the rupture of the tube and the bleeding into the peritoneal cavity, which can irritate the diaphragm and the abdominal wall. Scant red vaginal bleeding is a sign of implantation bleeding, which can occur when the fertilized ovum attaches to the tube wall.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
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