A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Increased subcutaneous fat
Dry, cracked skin
Scant scalp hair
Copious vernix
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Increased subcutaneous fat is not a typical finding in a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation, because it is more characteristic of a term or preterm newborn. A postterm newborn tends to have less subcutaneous fat, and may appear thin and wasted.
Choice B reason: Dry, cracked skin is a common finding in a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation, because the skin has been exposed to the amniotic fluid for a prolonged period. The skin may also appear peeling, wrinkled, or leathery.
Choice C reason: Scant scalp hair is not a usual finding in a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation, because it is more characteristic of a preterm newborn. A postterm newborn tends to have more scalp hair, and may also have long nails and abundant lanugo.
Choice D reason: Copious vernix is not a specific finding in a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation, because it is more characteristic of a term or preterm newborn. A postterm newborn tends to have little or no vernix, which is a white, cheesy substance that protects the skin in utero.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.
Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
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