A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats per minute with limited variability. At birth, the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. Based on the maternal history, what is the most likely cause of this newborn's distress?
Hypoglycemia
Phrenic nerve injury
Sepsis
Meconium aspiration syndrome
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level that can affect newborns, especially those who are premature, small for gestational age, or have diabetic mothers. However, hypoglycemia does not explain the high FHR, the low Apgar scores, or the pale and tachypneic appearance of the newborn.
Choice B reason: Phrenic nerve injury is a rare complication of cesarean section that can cause diaphragmatic paralysis and respiratory distress in the newborn. However, phrenic nerve injury usually affects only one side of the chest, and does not cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, or pallor.
Choice C reason: Sepsis is a serious infection that can affect newborns, especially those who are exposed to prolonged rupture of membranes, as in this case. Sepsis can cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, pale and tachypneic appearance, and other signs of shock and organ failure.
Choice D reason: Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition where the newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid into the lungs, causing respiratory distress. However, meconium aspiration syndrome usually occurs in term or post-term infants, and is associated with low FHR, not high FHR. Meconium aspiration syndrome also causes cyanosis, not pallor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, diabetes, or renal impairment. A client with severe preeclampsia may have oliguria, which is a urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours, due to the decreased renal perfusion and function.
Choice B reason: Report of headache is an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or vasospasm. A client with severe preeclampsia may also have other neurological symptoms, such as blurred vision, scotoma, photophobia, or hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, infection, anxiety, or fetal distress. A client with severe preeclampsia may have bradycardia, which is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Absence of clonus is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate normal or decreased neuromuscular irritability. A client with severe preeclampsia may have positive clonus, which is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, due to the increased reflex excitability and hyperactivity.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
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