A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats per minute with limited variability. At birth, the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. Based on the maternal history, what is the most likely cause of this newborn's distress?
Hypoglycemia
Phrenic nerve injury
Sepsis
Meconium aspiration syndrome
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level that can affect newborns, especially those who are premature, small for gestational age, or have diabetic mothers. However, hypoglycemia does not explain the high FHR, the low Apgar scores, or the pale and tachypneic appearance of the newborn.
Choice B reason: Phrenic nerve injury is a rare complication of cesarean section that can cause diaphragmatic paralysis and respiratory distress in the newborn. However, phrenic nerve injury usually affects only one side of the chest, and does not cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, or pallor.
Choice C reason: Sepsis is a serious infection that can affect newborns, especially those who are exposed to prolonged rupture of membranes, as in this case. Sepsis can cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, pale and tachypneic appearance, and other signs of shock and organ failure.
Choice D reason: Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition where the newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid into the lungs, causing respiratory distress. However, meconium aspiration syndrome usually occurs in term or post-term infants, and is associated with low FHR, not high FHR. Meconium aspiration syndrome also causes cyanosis, not pallor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
Explanation
To calculate the number of tablets, the nurse should use the following formula:
Number of tablets = (Desired dose / Available dose) x (Available form / Desired form)
In this case, the desired dose is 50 mg, the available dose is 100 mg, the available form is 1 tablet, and the desired form is 1 tablet. Therefore, the formula becomes:
Number of tablets = (50 mg / 100 mg) x (1 tablet / 1 tablet)
Number of tablets = 0.5 x 1
Number of tablets = 0.5
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 0.5. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is 0.5. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 0.5 and not 0.50.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Irregular fetal heart rate is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate fetal arrhythmia, distress, or demise. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have no fetal heart tones, as the pregnancy is nonviable and consists of abnormal trophoblastic tissue.
Choice B reason: Rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal termination of pregnancy. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have markedly elevated hCG levels, as the trophoblastic tissue secretes excessive amounts of the hormone.
Choice C reason: Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal cervical mucus production. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have vaginal bleeding, which is often dark brown or bright red, and may contain grape-like vesicles.
Choice D reason: Excessive uterine enlargement is an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it reflects the rapid growth of the trophoblastic tissue and the accumulation of fluid-filled vesicles. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have a uterus that is larger than expected for the gestational age, and may experience uterine cramping or pain.
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