A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine

Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks

Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia, along with hypertension. Proteinuria indicates renal damage and impaired glomerular filtration, which can lead to complications, such as oliguria, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome.

Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is a common and expected finding in pregnancy, as it results from the increased blood volume, venous pressure, and fluid retention. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is severe, generalized, or sudden.

Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is a normal and expected finding in pregnancy, as it reflects the growth and development of the fetus, placenta, and maternal tissues. Weight gain is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is excessive, rapid, or associated with edema.

Choice D reason: Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg is a mild elevation that may indicate gestational hypertension, but not preeclampsia, unless it is accompanied by proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. The diagnostic threshold for preeclampsia is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.

Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.

Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.

Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.

Correct Answer is ["200"]

Explanation

The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.

To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:

IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)

In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:

IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL

IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr

The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.

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A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["200"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. When monitoring the uterine contractions, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is admitting a client who has a diagnosis of preterm labor. The nurse anticipates an order by the provider for which of the following medications?

A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol 50 mg PO daily to a client. The amount available is atenolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)

Which compound would the nurse have readily available for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate to treat severe preeclampsia?

A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following is an expected finding?

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who is in her second trimester and has a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin. The nurse should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?