A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine
Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day
Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks
Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia, along with hypertension. Proteinuria indicates renal damage and impaired glomerular filtration, which can lead to complications, such as oliguria, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome.
Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is a common and expected finding in pregnancy, as it results from the increased blood volume, venous pressure, and fluid retention. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is severe, generalized, or sudden.
Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is a normal and expected finding in pregnancy, as it reflects the growth and development of the fetus, placenta, and maternal tissues. Weight gain is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is excessive, rapid, or associated with edema.
Choice D reason: Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg is a mild elevation that may indicate gestational hypertension, but not preeclampsia, unless it is accompanied by proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. The diagnostic threshold for preeclampsia is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.
Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.
Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
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