A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine

Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks

Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia, along with hypertension. Proteinuria indicates renal damage and impaired glomerular filtration, which can lead to complications, such as oliguria, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome.

Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is a common and expected finding in pregnancy, as it results from the increased blood volume, venous pressure, and fluid retention. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is severe, generalized, or sudden.

Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is a normal and expected finding in pregnancy, as it reflects the growth and development of the fetus, placenta, and maternal tissues. Weight gain is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is excessive, rapid, or associated with edema.

Choice D reason: Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg is a mild elevation that may indicate gestational hypertension, but not preeclampsia, unless it is accompanied by proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. The diagnostic threshold for preeclampsia is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation and pain. The risk factors for thrombophlebitis include immobility, dehydration, obesity, smoking, and cesarean birth. This client is not at increased risk for thrombophlebitis based on the information given.

Choice B reason: Retained placental fragments are pieces of the placenta that remain in the uterus after delivery and can cause bleeding, infection, or uterine subinvolution. The risk factors for retained placental fragments include placenta previa, placenta accreta, manual removal of the placenta, and incomplete separation of the placenta. This client is not at increased risk for retained placental fragments based on the information given.

Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is an infection of the reproductive tract that occurs within six weeks after delivery and can cause fever, malaise, abdominal pain, and foul-smelling lochia. The risk factors for puerperal infection include prolonged rupture of membranes, prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, operative delivery, and retained placental fragments. This client is not at increased risk for puerperal infection based on the information given.

Choice D reason: Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery and can cause excessive bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and hemorrhage. The risk factors for uterine atony include overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, oxytocin use, anesthesia, and trauma. This client is at increased risk for uterine atony due to the large size of the newborn, which can overstretch the uterus and impair its ability to contract.

A. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions B. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.

Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.

Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.

Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.

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