A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor. The nurse observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Insert a gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure on the cord.
Cover the cord with a sterile, moist saline dressing.
Place the client in knee-chest position.
Prepare the client for an immediate birth.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This action is the first and most important intervention that the nurse should perform, as it can prevent or reduce the compression of the umbilical cord, which can cause fetal hypoxia, bradycardia, or death. The nurse should insert a gloved hand into the vagina and gently push the presenting part away from the cord, and maintain this position until the delivery.
Choice B reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it does not address the cause of the cord prolapse, which is the displacement of the cord below the presenting part. However, this action is helpful to prevent the drying and infection of the cord, and should be done after the first intervention.
Choice C reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it may not be effective or feasible depending on the stage of labor and the client's condition. However, this action is beneficial to reduce the pressure of the presenting part on the cord, and should be done after the first intervention.
Choice D reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it does not provide immediate relief or protection to the fetus. However, this action is necessary to expedite the delivery and prevent further complications, and should be done after the first intervention.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: To call for an immediate magnesium sulfate level is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a diagnostic test that requires a blood sample and a laboratory analysis, which can take time and delay the treatment. The nurse should first stop the infusion and notify the provider, as the client is showing signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is a life-threatening condition that can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, or coma.
Choice B reason: To prepare to administer hydralazine is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the blood pressure and the fetal status. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that lowers the blood pressure and prevents the complications of severe preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, stroke, or organ damage. However, the client's blood pressure is not very high and is not the main problem at the moment.
Choice C reason: To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion is the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is the first and most important intervention that can reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate and restore the neuromuscular function and the respiratory rate. Magnesium sulfate is a drug that prevents seizures and lowers the blood pressure in clients with severe preeclampsia, but it can also cause toxicity if the dose is too high or the infusion is too fast.
Choice D reason: To administer oxygen is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that improves the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs, but does not address the underlying cause of the respiratory depression, which is the magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should administer oxygen only after stopping the infusion and assessing the oxygen saturation and the respiratory status.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
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