The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000 mm3, an elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The laboratory results are indicative of which condition?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome
Eclampsia
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome is not the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. DIC can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. DIC would cause a low platelet count, but also a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.
Choice B reason: Eclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a seizure disorder that occurs in clients with severe preeclampsia. Eclampsia can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. Eclampsia would cause a high blood pressure, but also a proteinuria, edema, and hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome is the correct answer, as it is a variant of severe preeclampsia that affects the blood and the liver. HELLP syndrome is indicated by the laboratory results, as it causes a low platelet count, an elevated AST level, and a falling hematocrit. HELLP syndrome would also cause a high blood pressure, a proteinuria, and a right upper quadrant pain.
Choice D reason: Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is not the correct answer, as it is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets by antibodies. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia can affect pregnant women, but it is not related to severe preeclampsia or the laboratory results. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia would cause a low platelet count, but not an elevated AST level or a falling hematocrit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.
Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.
Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.
Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Molar pregnancy is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a gestational trophoblastic disease that causes an abnormal growth of the placenta and the production of high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is a hormone that stimulates nausea and vomiting. Molar pregnancy can cause severe and persistent hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as vaginal bleeding, uterine enlargement, and preeclampsia.
Choice B reason: Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it suggests a genetic or physiological predisposition to the condition. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs in pregnancy, and it can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and malnutrition. Hyperemesis gravidarum can recur in subsequent pregnancies, especially if the mother has the same partner, the same sex of the fetus, or a short interval between pregnancies.
Choice C reason: Oligohydramnios is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a low level of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus. Oligohydramnios is not related to hyperemesis gravidarum, and it is not a cause or a consequence of it. Oligohydramnios can affect the fetal development and the delivery, as it can cause fetal growth restriction, cord compression, or meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: Multiple fetal gestation is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a condition where the mother is carrying more than one fetus. Multiple fetal gestation can cause higher levels of hCG, estrogen, and progesterone, which are hormones that stimulate nausea and vomiting. Multiple fetal gestation can cause more severe and prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as preterm labor, anemia, and preeclampsia.
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