A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
Painless red vaginal bleeding
Intermittent abdominal pain following passage of bloody mucus
Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus
Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Painless red vaginal bleeding is the most characteristic finding of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers the cervical opening and can cause bleeding in the third trimester. Painless red vaginal bleeding occurs because the placenta is detached from the lower uterine segment as the cervix dilates or effaces, and the blood vessels are torn. The bleeding can be mild or severe, and it can recur or persist until delivery.
Choice B reason: Intermittent abdominal pain following passage of bloody mucus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests normal labor or preterm labor. Intermittent abdominal pain is caused by uterine contractions, which can be regular or irregular, and can increase in frequency, duration, and intensity. Bloody mucus is the mucus plug that is expelled from the cervix as it dilates or effaces, and it can be tinged with blood or streaked with blood.
Choice C reason: Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that indicates abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Increasing abdominal pain is caused by the bleeding and the hematoma formation behind the placenta, which can compress the uterine muscle and the nerve endings. Nonrelaxed uterus is a sign of uterine hypertonicity, which can reduce the blood flow and the oxygen delivery to the fetus.
Choice D reason: Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding is not a finding that supports placenta previa, but rather a finding that suggests ectopic pregnancy, which is a condition where the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube. Abdominal pain is caused by the rupture of the tube and the bleeding into the peritoneal cavity, which can irritate the diaphragm and the abdominal wall. Scant red vaginal bleeding is a sign of implantation bleeding, which can occur when the fertilized ovum attaches to the tube wall.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Orthostatic hypotension is a normal finding in the postpartum period, because the client has a sudden decrease in blood volume after delivery. The nurse should instruct the client to change positions slowly and drink plenty of fluids.
Choice B reason: Urine output of 3,000 mL in 12 hr is a normal finding in the postpartum period, because the client has increased renal perfusion and diuresis after delivery. The nurse should encourage the client to empty the bladder frequently and monitor the intake and output.
Choice C reason: Heart rate 160/min is an abnormal finding in the postpartum period, because it indicates tachycardia, which can be a sign of infection, dehydration, hemorrhage, or cardiac complications. The nurse should assess the client's temperature, blood pressure, pulse, respirations, skin color, lochia, and pain level, and report any abnormal findings to the provider.
Choice D reason: Fundus palpable at the umbilicus is a normal finding in the postpartum period, because the uterus gradually involutes and descends into the pelvis after delivery. The nurse should palpate the fundus and check for firmness, position, and height. The fundus should be at the level of the umbilicus immediately after delivery, and descend about one fingerbreadth per day.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
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