A nurse is administering a unit of RBC 350 mL over 3 hr to a client who has anemia. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
The Correct Answer is ["117"]
The correct answer is 117 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 350 mL, the time of infusion is 3 hr, and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (350 mL / 3 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 116.67 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 117 mL/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause serious complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly and report any readings above 140/90 mm Hg to the provider.
Choice B reason: Increased urine output is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal physiological change of pregnancy, as the renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate increase. A client with preeclampsia may have decreased urine output, which can indicate renal impairment or oligohydramnios.
Choice C reason: Joint pain is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a common discomfort of pregnancy, as the hormones relaxin and progesterone loosen the ligaments and joints. A client with preeclampsia may have epigastric pain, which can indicate liver involvement or impending eclampsia.
Choice D reason: Vaginal discharge is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal occurrence of pregnancy, as the cervical glands secrete more mucus to protect the uterus from infection. A client with preeclampsia may have vaginal bleeding, which can indicate placental abruption or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is not a necessary intervention for the client, unless she has signs of hypoxia, such as dyspnea, tachypnea, or cyanosis. Oxygen administration is not routinely indicated for clients with inevitable abortion.
Choice B reason: Offering option to view products of conception is an appropriate intervention for the client, because it can help her cope with the loss of pregnancy and facilitate the grieving process. The nurse should respect the client's decision and provide emotional support.
Choice C reason: Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet is not a relevant intervention for the client, unless she has signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cramps, or arrhythmias. Potassium intake is not related to the cause or prevention of inevitable abortion.
Choice D reason: Maintaining the client in a Trendelenburg position is not a recommended intervention for the client, because it can increase the risk of aspiration, respiratory compromise, and venous congestion. Trendelenburg position is not effective in preventing or treating inevitable abortion.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.