A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hr ago. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Administer oxytocin infusion.

Initiate oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask.

Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Obtaining a type and crossmatch is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a preparatory step for blood transfusion, which may or may not be needed. The nurse should first identify the cause and severity of the hypotension, and initiate immediate interventions to stop the bleeding and restore the circulation.

Choice B reason: Administering oxytocin infusion is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the uterine tone and bleeding. The nurse should first evaluate the firmness of the uterus and massage it if needed, to stimulate the contraction and retraction of the uterine muscle.

Choice C reason: Initiating oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that aims to improve the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs. The nurse should first address the underlying cause of the hypotension, which is most likely postpartum hemorrhage, and prevent further blood loss and shock.

Choice D reason: Evaluating the firmness of the uterus is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can help determine the source and extent of the bleeding, and guide the subsequent interventions. The nurse should palpate the fundus and check the lochia, and report any signs of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: This action is the first and most important intervention that the nurse should perform, as it can prevent or reduce the compression of the umbilical cord, which can cause fetal hypoxia, bradycardia, or death. The nurse should insert a gloved hand into the vagina and gently push the presenting part away from the cord, and maintain this position until the delivery.

Choice B reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it does not address the cause of the cord prolapse, which is the displacement of the cord below the presenting part. However, this action is helpful to prevent the drying and infection of the cord, and should be done after the first intervention.

Choice C reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it may not be effective or feasible depending on the stage of labor and the client's condition. However, this action is beneficial to reduce the pressure of the presenting part on the cord, and should be done after the first intervention.

Choice D reason: This action is not the first intervention that the nurse should perform, as it does not provide immediate relief or protection to the fetus. However, this action is necessary to expedite the delivery and prevent further complications, and should be done after the first intervention.

A. Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins B. Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress C. Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor D. Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.

Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.

Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.

Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.

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A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hr ago. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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