A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin. The nurse should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Hypobilirubinemia
Biliary atresia
Transient clotting difficulties
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Erythroblastosis fetalis is the correct answer, as it is a hemolytic disease of the newborn that occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive, and the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia, jaundice, and edema. Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin is an injection that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies in the mother, and reduces the risk of erythroblastosis fetalis in the current or subsequent pregnancies.
Choice B reason: Hypobilirubinemia is not the correct answer, as it is a low level of bilirubin in the blood that can cause pale skin, poor feeding, or lethargy. Hypobilirubinemia is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is not a common or serious complication in the newborn.
Choice C reason: Biliary atresia is not the correct answer, as it is a congenital defect of the bile ducts that prevents the flow of bile from the liver to the intestine, causing jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools. Biliary atresia is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is not a preventable complication in the newborn.
Choice D reason: Transient clotting difficulties is not the correct answer, as it is a bleeding disorder that occurs due to the deficiency of vitamin K, which is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors. Transient clotting difficulties is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is preventable by administering vitamin K to the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Prostaglandin E2 is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Prostaglandin E2 is used to induce labor, not to stop it.
Choice B reason: Methylergonovine is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage, not to stop preterm labor.
Choice C reason: Terbutaline is an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a tocolytic agent that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and inhibits contractions. Terbutaline is used to delay preterm labor and prolong pregnancy.
Choice D reason: Oxytocin is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection. Oxytocin is used to augment labor, not to stop it.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.