What is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage?

Misoprostol

Pitocin

Hemabate

Methergine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.

Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.

Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Asymmetric thigh folds is a common finding in newborns who have DDH, because the affected hip is dislocated or subluxated, causing the thigh to appear shorter and the skin folds to be uneven. The nurse should compare the number and depth of the skin folds on both sides of the groin and buttocks.

Choice B reason: Absent plantar reflexes is not a typical finding in newborns who have DDH, because it is not related to the hip joint. The plantar reflex is a normal reflex that causes the toes to curl when the sole of the foot is stroked. The nurse should assess the plantar reflex in all newborns, regardless of their hip status.

Choice C reason: Lengthened thigh on the affected side is not a usual finding in newborns who have DDH, because the opposite is true. The affected thigh is usually shorter than the unaffected thigh, due to the displacement of the femoral head from the acetabulum. The nurse should measure the length of both thighs from the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.

Choice D reason: Inwardly turned foot on the affected side is not a specific finding in newborns who have DDH, because it can be caused by other conditions, such as metatarsus adductus or clubfoot. The inward turning of the foot is not a direct result of the hip disorder, but rather a secondary effect of the abnormal positioning of the leg. The nurse should examine the alignment and mobility of the foot and ankle.

A. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation B. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation C. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation D. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.

Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.

Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.

Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.

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What is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a newborn who has developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to implement? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is preparing to administer oxygen via hood therapy to a newborn who was born at 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action when providing care to this infant?

Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?

A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider immediately?

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate IV to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for this client?