What is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage?
Misoprostol
Pitocin
Hemabate
Methergine
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.
Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.
Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.
Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.
Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.
Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.
Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nervousness is a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can provide reassurance and comfort to the client.
Choice B reason: Tremors are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes increased muscle activity and shakiness. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can monitor the client's vital signs and electrolyte levels, and advise the client to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
Choice C reason: Dyspnea is an uncommon and serious side effect of terbutaline, as it can indicate pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, or discontinuation of terbutaline.
Choice D reason: Headaches are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the brain. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can administer analgesics as prescribed, and encourage the client to rest and hydrate.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.