A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports severe pain.

A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 128/80 mm Hg

A client who is scheduled for discharge following a vaginal delivery without complications.

A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports a scant amount of lochia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.

Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.

Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.

Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.

Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.

Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome B. Eclampsia C. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome is not the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. DIC can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. DIC would cause a low platelet count, but also a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.

Choice B reason: Eclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a seizure disorder that occurs in clients with severe preeclampsia. Eclampsia can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. Eclampsia would cause a high blood pressure, but also a proteinuria, edema, and hyperreflexia.

Choice C reason: Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome is the correct answer, as it is a variant of severe preeclampsia that affects the blood and the liver. HELLP syndrome is indicated by the laboratory results, as it causes a low platelet count, an elevated AST level, and a falling hematocrit. HELLP syndrome would also cause a high blood pressure, a proteinuria, and a right upper quadrant pain.

Choice D reason: Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is not the correct answer, as it is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets by antibodies. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia can affect pregnant women, but it is not related to severe preeclampsia or the laboratory results. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia would cause a low platelet count, but not an elevated AST level or a falling hematocrit.

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A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

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Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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