A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports severe pain.
A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 128/80 mm Hg
A client who is scheduled for discharge following a vaginal delivery without complications.
A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports a scant amount of lochia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.
Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.
Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.
Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause fetal distress, growth restriction, or demise. Continuous fetal monitoring can help detect and evaluate the fetal heart rate, variability, accelerations, decelerations, and contractions, and guide the management and intervention.
Choice B reason: This order requires clarification, as it is an inappropriate and contraindicated order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause seizures, stroke, or organ failure. Ambulation can increase the blood pressure, stimulate the labor, and worsen the condition. The client should be on bed rest, with the head of the bed elevated, and receive medications to lower the blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice C reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause edema, proteinuria, or oliguria. Obtaining a daily weight can help monitor the fluid status, the severity of the edema, and the response to the treatment.
Choice D reason: This order does not require clarification, as it is an appropriate and standard order for a client who has severe preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause hyperreflexia, clonus, or seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour can help evaluate the neuromuscular irritability, the risk of eclampsia, and the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Prostaglandin E2 is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Prostaglandin E2 is used to induce labor, not to stop it.
Choice B reason: Methylergonovine is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage, not to stop preterm labor.
Choice C reason: Terbutaline is an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a tocolytic agent that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and inhibits contractions. Terbutaline is used to delay preterm labor and prolong pregnancy.
Choice D reason: Oxytocin is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection. Oxytocin is used to augment labor, not to stop it.
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