A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports severe pain.
A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 128/80 mm Hg
A client who is scheduled for discharge following a vaginal delivery without complications.
A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports a scant amount of lochia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.
Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.
Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.
Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.
Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.
Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. No special treatment is necessary.
Choice A reason: Prone positioning is not typically recommended for a fractured clavicle in infants. It does not facilitate bone alignment in the case of clavicle fractures and is not part of standard care.
Choice B reason: This is the correct choice because clavicle fractures in newborns generally heal on their own without the need for special treatment. Parents may be instructed to pin the child’s sleeve to the front of their clothing to avoid moving the arm while it heals, but beyond gentle handling, no other special treatment is necessary. In most cases, clavicle fractures in newborns heal very quickly without any problems, and usually, no treatment is required.
Choice C reason: Immobilization and casting are not standard care for newborn clavicle fractures. These fractures typically heal without such interventions, and immobilization with a cast is not needed for these types of injuries in infants.
Choice D reason: While range-of-motion exercises might be beneficial later in the healing process, they are not the primary consideration immediately after the fracture occurs. The initial care plan focuses on gentle handling and comfort for the infant, not on exercises.
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