Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins
Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress
Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor
Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.
Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.
Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.
Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.
Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.
Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Physiological jaundice is not the correct answer, as it is a normal and benign condition that occurs in about 60% of term newborns, and usually appears after the first 24 hours of life. Physiological jaundice is caused by the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin and the immature liver function, and resolves within a few days.
Choice B reason: Maternal cocaine abuse is not the correct answer, as it is a maternal risk factor that can cause various complications in the newborn, such as low birth weight, prematurity, intrauterine growth restriction, or congenital anomalies. Maternal cocaine abuse does not cause jaundice in the newborn, unless it leads to hepatic or renal dysfunction.
Choice C reason: Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is the correct answer, as it is a maternal-fetal condition that can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a severe form of jaundice that can appear within the first 24 hours of life. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility occurs when the mother's blood type is Rh negative and the newborn's blood type is Rh positive, or when the mother's blood type is O and the newborn's blood type is A or B. The maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack the newborn's red blood cells, causing hemolysis, anemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.
Choice D reason: Absence of vitamin K is not the correct answer, as it is a nutritional deficiency that can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which is a bleeding disorder that can occur within the first week of life. Absence of vitamin K is due to the lack of intestinal flora and the low vitamin K content in breast milk, and can cause bleeding in the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs. Absence of vitamin K does not cause jaundice in the newborn, unless it leads to hepatic or biliary dysfunction.
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