Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins

Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress

Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor

Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.

Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.

Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.

Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: To call for an immediate magnesium sulfate level is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a diagnostic test that requires a blood sample and a laboratory analysis, which can take time and delay the treatment. The nurse should first stop the infusion and notify the provider, as the client is showing signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is a life-threatening condition that can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, or coma.

Choice B reason: To prepare to administer hydralazine is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the blood pressure and the fetal status. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that lowers the blood pressure and prevents the complications of severe preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, stroke, or organ damage. However, the client's blood pressure is not very high and is not the main problem at the moment.

Choice C reason: To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion is the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is the first and most important intervention that can reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate and restore the neuromuscular function and the respiratory rate. Magnesium sulfate is a drug that prevents seizures and lowers the blood pressure in clients with severe preeclampsia, but it can also cause toxicity if the dose is too high or the infusion is too fast.

Choice D reason: To administer oxygen is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that improves the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs, but does not address the underlying cause of the respiratory depression, which is the magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should administer oxygen only after stopping the infusion and assessing the oxygen saturation and the respiratory status.

A. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation B. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation C. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation D. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.

Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.

Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.

Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.

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Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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